ATI RN
Postpartum Body Changes Questions
Question 1 of 5
A woman with postpartum depression has been prescribed Zoloft (sertraline) 50 mg daily. Which of the following should the client be taught about the medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) Therapeutic effect may be delayed a week or more. This is the most important information to provide to the client because it helps set realistic expectations about when they can expect to see improvements in their symptoms. It is crucial for the client to understand that the medication may take some time to start working, so they need to be patient and continue taking it as prescribed. Option A is incorrect because chamomile tea is not known to potentiate the effects of sertraline. Mixing herbal remedies with prescribed medications can be dangerous and should be avoided without consulting a healthcare provider. Option C is incorrect because sertraline does not necessarily have to be taken whole. It can be taken with or without food, but it is important to follow the specific instructions provided by the healthcare provider or pharmacist. Option D is incorrect because while weight gain can be a side effect of sertraline, it is not commonly seen to the extent of up to ten pounds. Weight changes can vary from person to person, and it is essential to monitor and discuss any changes with a healthcare provider. In an educational context, it is crucial to provide accurate and clear information to clients about their medications to ensure they understand how to take them safely and effectively. Setting realistic expectations and dispelling myths or misconceptions about medication can help promote adherence and better outcomes for the client.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse administers RhoGAM to a postpartum client. Which of the following is the goal of the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: RhoGAM is administered to a postpartum client who is Rh-negative to prevent the mother's immune system from producing antibodies against Rh-positive fetal blood cells, a condition known as Rh incompatibility. Option A, "Inhibit the mother's active immune response," is the correct answer because RhoGAM works by suppressing the mother's immune response to Rh-positive blood cells she may have been exposed to during pregnancy or delivery. Option B, "Aggressively destroy the Rh antibodies produced by the mother," is incorrect because RhoGAM does not destroy existing Rh antibodies but rather prevents their formation. Option C, "Prevent fetal cells from migrating throughout the mother's circulation," is incorrect as RhoGAM does not act on fetal cells but on the mother's immune system. Option D, "Change the maternal blood type to Rh-positive," is inaccurate as RhoGAM does not alter the mother's blood type. In an educational context, understanding the rationale behind administering RhoGAM is crucial for nurses caring for postpartum clients. By grasping the purpose of this medication, nurses can provide safe and effective care to prevent complications related to Rh incompatibility in future pregnancies. It also highlights the importance of maternal-fetal blood type compatibility and the role of immunoprophylaxis in preventing hemolytic disease of the newborn.
Question 3 of 5
A client is 1 day post-cesarean section with spinal anesthesia. Even though the nurse advised against it, the client has had the head of her bed in high Fowler's position since delivery. Which of the following complications would the nurse expect to see in relation to the client's action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) Severe postural headache. When a client undergoes a cesarean section with spinal anesthesia, maintaining the head of the bed elevated can lead to a postural headache due to leakage of cerebrospinal fluid from the dural puncture site, exacerbated by the high Fowler's position. This positional headache is a common complication post-spinal anesthesia and can be severe. Option A) Postpartum hemorrhage is incorrect as it is not directly related to the client's position in bed. Postpartum hemorrhage usually occurs due to issues like uterine atony or retained placental fragments. Option C) Pruritic skin rash is also unrelated to the client's bed position and is more commonly associated with allergic reactions or dermatological conditions. Option D) Paralytic ileus is not typically caused by the client's bed position but rather by factors like decreased peristalsis following abdominal surgery. Educationally, this scenario highlights the importance of understanding the potential complications of specific postpartum interventions, like maintaining proper positioning post-cesarean section with spinal anesthesia to prevent avoidable issues such as postural headaches. It also emphasizes the need for clear patient education and compliance with healthcare provider instructions to ensure optimal recovery and outcomes.
Question 4 of 5
A client, who had no prenatal care, delivers a 10-lb 10-oz baby boy whose serum glucose result 1 hour after delivery was 20 mg/dL. Based on these data, which of the following tests should the mother have at her 6-week postpartum checkup?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) Glucose tolerance test. In this scenario, the mother's baby had a high birth weight and low serum glucose level, indicating a risk for gestational diabetes. Without prenatal care, there was no monitoring of the mother's blood glucose levels during pregnancy. Therefore, a glucose tolerance test at the 6-week postpartum checkup is crucial to assess the mother's glucose metabolism and screen for diabetes. Option B) Indirect Coombs' test is used to detect antibodies in the mother's blood that could attack the baby's red blood cells, which is unrelated to the presented scenario of glucose monitoring. Option C) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) measures kidney function and is not directly related to the mother's risk of developing gestational diabetes. Option D) Complete blood count (CBC) assesses levels of different blood components and is not specific to monitoring glucose levels postpartum. Educationally, understanding the importance of postpartum monitoring for women who had high-risk pregnancies, like in this case with a large baby and low serum glucose levels, highlights the necessity of comprehensive care for both the mother and baby. Regular follow-up and appropriate tests are essential for early detection and management of potential health issues postpartum.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for the following four laboring patients. Which client should the nurse be prepared to monitor closely for signs of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)? Select one that doesn't apply
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, option D is the correct answer. The nurse should be prepared to monitor client D closely for signs of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) due to the risk factors associated with delivering a large-for-gestational-age baby at 42 weeks. Postpartum hemorrhage is more common in women who have delivered larger babies due to potential uterine atony or inability of the uterus to contract effectively after delivery. Additionally, the prolonged gestation increases the risk of uterine atony and subsequent PPH. Option A can be eliminated because delivering a fetal demise at 29 weeks does not typically increase the risk of PPH. Option B, a prolonged first stage of labor, may lead to exhaustion but is not a direct risk factor for PPH. Option C, a cesarean section for failure to progress, does not inherently increase the risk of PPH unless there are complications during or after the surgery. Educationally, understanding the risk factors for postpartum hemorrhage is crucial for nurses caring for laboring patients. By recognizing the factors that can contribute to PPH, nurses can provide appropriate monitoring, interventions, and support to prevent or manage this potentially life-threatening complication effectively.