ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions and answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
A woman scheduled for a simple mastectomy in one week is having her preoperative education provided by the clinic nurse. What educational intervention will be of primary importance to prevent hemorrhage in the postoperative period?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stop taking aspirin. Aspirin is a blood thinner that can increase the risk of bleeding during and after surgery. By stopping aspirin before surgery, the woman's blood clotting ability will improve, reducing the risk of hemorrhage. A: Limiting intake of green leafy vegetables is not directly related to preventing hemorrhage in the postoperative period. B: Increasing water intake is important for overall health, but it does not specifically address the risk of hemorrhage related to aspirin use. D: Having nothing by mouth for 6 hours before surgery is important for preventing aspiration during anesthesia, but it does not directly address the risk of hemorrhage related to aspirin use.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is a member of an interdisciplinary teamthat uses critical pathways. According to the critical pathway, on day 2 of the hospital stay, the patient should be sitting in the chair. It is day 3, and the patient cannot sit in the chair. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Document the variance in the patient’s record. By documenting the variance in the patient's record, the nurse can provide a clear record of the deviation from the critical pathway. This documentation is essential for tracking the patient's progress accurately and identifying potential issues that may require intervention. It allows for proper communication among the interdisciplinary team and ensures that everyone is aware of the deviation. Choice A is incorrect because adding data to the problem list may not provide a comprehensive record of the variance. Choice B is incorrect because focusing on charting using the DAR format does not address the deviation from the critical pathway. Choice D is incorrect because reporting a positive variance in the next team meeting may not accurately reflect the patient's actual progress and may lead to miscommunication within the team.
Question 3 of 9
A patient who was pregnant had a spontaneous abortion at approximately 4 weeks’ gestation. At the time of the miscarriage, it was thought that all products of conception were expelled. Two weeks later, the patient presents at the clinic office complaining of “crampy” abdominal pain and a scant amount of serosanguineous vaginal drainage with a slight odor. The pregnancy test is negative. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 100F, with blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, irregular pulse 88 beats/minute (bpm), and respirations, 20 breaths per minute. Based on this assessment data, what does the nurse anticipate as a clinical diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Uterine infection. The patient's symptoms of crampy abdominal pain, scant serosanguineous vaginal drainage with odor, negative pregnancy test, and vital signs indicating fever, low blood pressure, and irregular pulse suggest an infection. The history of recent miscarriage raises suspicion for retained products of conception leading to infection. Ectopic pregnancy (choice A) would present with different symptoms such as abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and positive pregnancy test. Gestational trophoblastic disease (choice C) typically presents with abnormal vaginal bleeding and high levels of hCG. Endometriosis (choice D) is a chronic condition and not related to the acute symptoms described. In summary, the clinical presentation aligns with uterine infection given the patient's history, symptoms, and vital signs.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is creating a plan of care for an oncology patient and one of the identified nursing diagnoses is risk for infection related to myelosuppression. What intervention addresses the leading cause of infection- related death in oncology patients?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assess the integrity of the patients oral mucosa regularly. Myelosuppression leads to decreased white blood cells, increasing infection risk. The oral mucosa can be a common site for infections. Regular assessment helps in early detection and intervention. A: Encouraging small meals does not directly address infection risk in myelosuppressed patients. B: Providing skin care is important for overall patient care but does not directly address the leading cause of infection-related death. C: Assisting with hygiene is important but does not specifically target the leading cause of infection-related death in oncology patients.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with multiple food and environmental allergies tells the nurse that he is frustrated and angry about having to be so watchful all the time and wonders if it is really worth it. What would be the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it shows empathy and offers the patient an opportunity to express their feelings. By acknowledging the patient's frustration and anger, the nurse validates their emotions and creates a safe space for communication. This response promotes trust and understanding, which are crucial in building a therapeutic relationship. Choice B is incorrect because it immediately jumps to teaching coping strategies without addressing the patient's emotional state. Choice C is incorrect as it generalizes the patient's feelings without directly engaging with their specific concerns. Choice D is incorrect as it sounds dismissive and may make the patient feel judged or misunderstood. These responses lack the empathetic approach needed to effectively support the patient in this situation.
Question 6 of 9
Before giving the patient an intermittent gastric tube feeding, what should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because injecting air into the stomach via the tube and auscultating helps confirm the tube placement in the stomach before administering the feeding. This step ensures the safety of the patient by preventing accidental lung feeding. Choice A is incorrect because securing the tube with a safety pin to the gown is not a standard practice and can lead to complications. Choice C is incorrect because the temperature of the feeding does not affect the tube placement or safety. Choice D is incorrect because checking the pH level is not a reliable method for verifying tube placement.
Question 7 of 9
Which finding on a prenatal visit at 10 weeks might suggest a hydatidiform mole?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fundal height measurement of 18 cm. This finding suggests a hydatidiform mole because it is larger than expected for a 10-week pregnancy due to excessive trophoblastic proliferation. A: Blood pressure is within normal range. B: Nausea is common in early pregnancy and not specific to a mole. D: History of bright red spotting is more indicative of a miscarriage or other complications, not necessarily a mole.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with HIV is admitted to the hospital because of chronic severe diarrhea. The nurse caring for this patient should expect the physician to order what drug for the management of the patients diarrhea?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sandostatin. This drug is a somatostatin analog that can help manage HIV-related chronic severe diarrhea by reducing gastrointestinal secretions. Sandostatin works by inhibiting the release of various hormones and neurotransmitters in the gut, which can help control diarrhea in HIV patients. Rationale: A: Zithromax is an antibiotic that is not typically used to manage chronic severe diarrhea in HIV patients. C: Levaquin is also an antibiotic and not indicated for managing diarrhea in HIV patients. D: Biaxin is another antibiotic and not the appropriate choice for managing chronic severe diarrhea in HIV patients. In summary, Sandostatin is the correct choice as it specifically targets the underlying cause of diarrhea in HIV patients by reducing gastrointestinal secretions, whereas the other options are antibiotics that are not indicated for this purpose.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is reviewing the health history of a newly admitted patient and reads that the patient has been previously diagnosed with exostoses. How should the nurse accommodate this fact into the patients plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C Rationale: 1. Exostoses are bony growths in the external auditory canal. 2. These growths can cause narrowing and obstruction of the canal, affecting hearing. 3. Collaborating with the pharmacist to assess for ototoxic medications is crucial to prevent further hearing impairment. 4. Performing Rinne and Weber tests (choice A) and arranging audiometry testing (choice B) are not directly related to exostoses. 5. Ignoring exostoses (choice D) can lead to worsening hearing loss and potential complications.