A woman is diagnosed with premenstrual dysphoric disorder. To address the woman's behavioral symptoms, which class of agents would the nurse anticipate needing to be addressed in the woman's teaching plan?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) is a severe form of premenstrual syndrome (PMS) characterized by debilitating emotional and behavioral symptoms. SSRIs are considered first-line pharmacological treatment for PMDD due to their ability to modulate serotonin levels in the brain, which helps regulate mood and behavior. Diuretics (option A) are not indicated for PMDD as they primarily affect fluid balance and are used for conditions like hypertension or edema. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) (option B) are typically used to relieve physical symptoms like pain and cramping, not the behavioral symptoms associated with PMDD. Vitamin supplements (option D) are important for overall health but do not directly address the neurotransmitter imbalances that contribute to PMDD symptoms. In an educational context, it is crucial for nurses to understand the pharmacological management of conditions like PMDD to provide optimal care to women's health issues. By knowing the appropriate classes of medications and their mechanisms of action, nurses can effectively educate patients on treatment options, potential side effects, and expected outcomes, promoting patient adherence and well-being.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Breakthrough bleeding can occur when the hormonal levels in oral contraceptives are not adequate for the individual. The nurse should recommend that the client consult the health care provider for possible adjustment of the contraceptive dosage rather than switching methods or discontinuing use without guidance.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Natural family planning, including the fertility awareness method, requires consistent tracking of signs such as basal body temperature and cervical mucus to identify fertile and infertile periods. It is not highly effective without effort, does not eliminate the need for other forms of contraception during fertile periods, and provides no protection against STIs.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse's best response is option B) "Your current medications will reduce the effectiveness of the pill." This answer is correct because barbiturates and phenytoin sodium, which the woman is taking for her seizure disorder, are known to induce liver enzymes that can accelerate the metabolism of oral contraceptives. This can lead to decreased effectiveness of the pill in preventing pregnancy. Option A is incorrect because it does not address the specific interaction between the woman's medications and oral contraceptives. Option C is also incorrect as it provides inaccurate information about the effect of oral contraceptives on seizure medications. Option D is incorrect as it overlooks the potential drug interaction issue and provides a generic statement without considering the woman's individual medical history and current medications. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of considering drug interactions when prescribing medications, especially when it comes to oral contraceptives. It underscores the need for healthcare providers to have a thorough understanding of pharmacology to provide safe and effective care to patients, particularly in the context of women's health and contraception.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Emergency contraception is most effective when taken within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse, though it can be taken up to 120 hours afterward. It inhibits follicular development if taken before ovulation, reducing the risk of pregnancy by up to 75%. Nausea is the most common side effect, not menorrhagia.