Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bilateral mastectomy. This intervention involves removing both breasts to reduce the risk of developing breast cancer in the future. For a woman with a history of breast cancer in one breast, opting for bilateral mastectomy can significantly decrease the likelihood of cancer recurrence. This proactive approach is often recommended for individuals with a high risk of developing breast cancer. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: A: More aggressive chemotherapy - Chemotherapy is typically used to treat existing cancer cells, not as a prophylactic measure to prevent cancer. B: Left mastectomy - This option only removes the affected breast, not addressing the risk of cancer developing in the other breast. C: Radiation therapy - While radiation therapy can be used as part of the treatment for breast cancer, it is not a prophylactic measure to prevent future cancer development in the contralateral breast.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Viral set point. The viral set point refers to the stable level of HIV in the body after the initial infection. This state indicates a balance between viral replication and the immune response. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Static stage implies no change, which is not the case with HIV levels fluctuating; B) Latent stage refers to a period of inactivity, not the stable state described; D) Window period is the time between infection and detectable antibodies, not the equilibrium state described.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient's symptoms of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain are classic signs of worsening preeclampsia, indicating a significant increase in blood pressure and potential progression to eclampsia (seizures). Immediate medical intervention is crucial to prevent complications. A: Gastrointestinal upset does not explain the combination of symptoms presented. B: Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia but does not cause these specific symptoms. C: Anxiety does not typically present with the specific physical symptoms mentioned.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Insulin needs change during pregnancy due to hormonal changes. 2. During the first trimester, insulin needs may decrease. 3. During the second and third trimesters, insulin needs increase. 4. Postpartum, insulin needs return to pre-pregnancy levels. Therefore, choice A is correct as insulin needs vary based on gestational stage. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because insulin needs do not uniformly increase or decrease throughout pregnancy or due to fetal insulin production.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diabetic retinopathy. This is because diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness in adults over 40, resulting from diabetes affecting blood vessels in the retina. Trauma (B) is a common cause of visual impairment but not as prevalent as diabetic retinopathy in this age group. Macular degeneration (C) primarily affects older individuals, typically over 50, rather than those over 40. Cytomegalovirus (D) is a cause of blindness in immunocompromised individuals, not specific to the age group mentioned. Glaucoma (E) is a leading cause of blindness worldwide but is more common in older adults and not specifically over 40.