A woman is 5 ft

Questions 44

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Gastrointestinal Test Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

A woman is 5 ft

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is option A) heart disease. The patient's height, weight, and waist-to-hip ratio indicate central obesity, which is a significant risk factor for heart disease. When excess weight is carried around the abdomen, it can increase the risk of cardiovascular issues due to the accumulation of visceral fat that surrounds internal organs. Option B) osteoporosis is incorrect because osteoporosis is not directly associated with central obesity or waist-to-hip ratio. Osteoporosis is more related to bone density and hormonal factors. Option D) diabetes mellitus is also incorrect in this context. While obesity is a risk factor for diabetes, the patient's waist-to-hip ratio specifically points towards cardiovascular risk rather than diabetes. In an educational context, it is crucial for healthcare providers to understand the relationship between central obesity and its implications for heart disease. By recognizing the significance of waist-to-hip ratio and weight distribution, nurses and healthcare professionals can provide targeted counseling and interventions to reduce the patient's risk of developing heart disease.

Question 2 of 5

A patient with upper GI bleeding is treated with several drugs. Which drug should the nurse recognize as an agent that is used to decrease bleeding and decrease gastric acid secretions?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) Vasopressin (Pitressin) because it is a vasoconstrictor that helps decrease bleeding by constricting blood vessels in the gastrointestinal tract. Vasopressin also reduces gastric acid secretion, which can help in the management of upper GI bleeding. Option A) Nizatidine (Axid) is an H2 receptor antagonist that primarily works by reducing gastric acid secretion but does not have a significant effect on bleeding control. Option B) Omeprazole (Prilosec) is a proton pump inhibitor that decreases gastric acid production but does not directly address bleeding. Option D) Octreotide (Sandostatin) is a medication that inhibits the release of various hormones, including growth hormone and glucagon, and is used in conditions like acromegaly and certain types of tumors. While it can help reduce bleeding in some cases, it is not primarily used to decrease bleeding and gastric acid secretions in upper GI bleeding. Understanding the mechanism of action of these drugs is crucial in managing patients with upper GI bleeding. Nurses need to be knowledgeable about these medications to provide safe and effective care to patients with gastrointestinal issues.

Question 3 of 5

The patient is receiving the following medications. Which one is prescribed to relieve symptoms rather than treat a disease?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this question regarding medications for gastrointestinal issues, the correct answer is C) Antidiarrheal agents. Antidiarrheal agents are prescribed to relieve symptoms of diarrhea by slowing down bowel movements and increasing the absorption of fluids, rather than treating an underlying disease. Corticosteroids (option A) are typically used to reduce inflammation in conditions like Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis. 6-Mercaptopurine (option B) is an immunosuppressive medication used in conditions like inflammatory bowel disease to treat the underlying disease by suppressing the immune system. Sulfasalazine (option D) is a medication that treats inflammatory bowel diseases like ulcerative colitis by reducing inflammation in the bowel lining. In an educational context, understanding the purpose of different medications in gastrointestinal disorders is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate treatment to patients. Recognizing the distinction between medications that target symptoms versus those that target the disease itself is essential for effective patient care and medication management. This knowledge helps healthcare providers make informed decisions based on the specific needs of each patient.

Question 4 of 5

A patient is diagnosed with celiac disease following a workup for iron-deficiency anemia and decreased bone density. The nurse identifies that additional teaching about disease management is needed when the patient makes which statement?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, option C, "I don't need to restrict gluten intake because I don't have diarrhea or bowel symptoms," is the incorrect statement. The correct answer is option C because celiac disease can present with various symptoms beyond gastrointestinal issues, such as iron-deficiency anemia and decreased bone density. Gluten consumption can still cause damage to the intestine and lead to long-term complications even in the absence of typical digestive symptoms. Option A is correct because celiac disease has a genetic component, and close relatives of individuals with celiac disease have a higher risk of also having the condition. Encouraging relatives to get screened is a proactive step in managing the disease. Option B is incorrect because while untreated celiac disease can increase the risk of certain complications like lymphoma, the immediate concern is the damage to the intestine and malabsorption of nutrients that can occur with gluten consumption. Option D is incorrect because although following a gluten-free diet may be challenging due to the widespread use of gluten in many foods, it is essential for individuals with celiac disease to prevent further damage to their intestines and maintain their overall health. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of understanding that celiac disease can manifest in diverse ways and that adherence to a gluten-free diet is crucial for all individuals with the condition, regardless of their presenting symptoms. It emphasizes the necessity of proper patient education in disease management to prevent further complications and promote overall well-being.

Question 5 of 5

When caring for a patient with autoimmune hepatitis, the nurse understands that what in this patient is different from the patient who has viral hepatitis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Is treated with corticosteroids or other immunosuppressive agents. Autoimmune hepatitis is a condition where the body's immune system mistakenly attacks the liver, leading to inflammation and liver damage. Unlike viral hepatitis where the damage is caused by a virus, autoimmune hepatitis is an autoimmune disorder. Option A) Does not manifest hepatomegaly or jaundice is incorrect because patients with autoimmune hepatitis can indeed present with these symptoms, although they may be less common compared to viral hepatitis. Option B) Experiences less liver inflammation and damage is incorrect as autoimmune hepatitis can cause significant inflammation and damage to the liver, just like in viral hepatitis. Option D) Is usually an older adult who has used a wide variety of prescription and over-the-counter drugs is incorrect because while autoimmune hepatitis can occur in older adults, it is not exclusively linked to medication use. Educationally, understanding the differences between autoimmune and viral hepatitis is crucial for nurses to provide appropriate care and interventions. Recognizing the need for immunosuppressive therapy in autoimmune hepatitis highlights the importance of proper diagnosis and treatment to manage this condition effectively and prevent further liver damage.

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