A woman in her second trimester of pregnancy mentions that since becoming pregnant she has had"more nosebleeds than ever." The nurse recognizes that this is due to:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: increased vascularity in the upper respiratory tract as a result of the pregnancy. During pregnancy, hormonal changes lead to increased blood flow in the body, including the nasal passages, causing them to become more sensitive and prone to bleeding. This explains why the woman is experiencing more nosebleeds. Incorrect Choices: A: coagulation problems in the patient - This is incorrect as pregnancy is associated with hypercoagulability rather than coagulation problems. C: increased susceptibility to colds and nasal irritation - While pregnancy can lower immunity, this does not directly cause nosebleeds. D: inappropriate use of nasal sprays - This is not relevant to the situation described and does not explain the increased nosebleeds due to pregnancy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Dark skin may not show cyanosis well, making choice A less reliable. Step 2: Erythema refers to redness, which may not be easily visible in dark skin, making choice B less suitable. Step 3: Palpating for edema and increased warmth allows for a more reliable assessment of inflammation in dark skin, making choice C the correct answer. Step 4: Palpating for tenderness and ecchymosis may be useful but not specific to inflammation assessment in dark skin, making choice D less relevant.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rheumatic fever. Rheumatic fever is a possible complication of untreated strep throat due to an abnormal immune response to the streptococcal infection. This can lead to inflammation in various parts of the body, particularly the heart, joints, skin, and brain. If left untreated, rheumatic fever can cause serious long-term damage to the heart valves. The other choices are incorrect because Rubella is a viral infection causing a rash, Leukoplakia is a precancerous condition of the mouth, and Scarlet fever is a bacterial infection characterized by a red rash. These conditions are not directly associated with untreated strep throat.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Bluish lips indicate cyanosis, a sign of inadequate oxygen supply. 2. Dark line along gingival margin suggests lead poisoning. 3. The nurse should assess for other signs of inadequate oxygen supply to determine the severity and underlying cause. 4. This finding is not normal and requires further evaluation to prevent complications. Summary: A: Checking hemoglobin for anemia is not the immediate priority when cyanosis and lead poisoning are suspected. C: Assuming this is a normal finding can lead to overlooking a potentially serious condition. D: Carbon monoxide exposure could be a consideration, but assessing for overall oxygen supply is more crucial in this scenario.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the presentation of clear vesicles with an erythematous base around them at the lip-skin border is characteristic of herpes simplex virus 1 infection, commonly known as cold sores. Given the patient's recent travel to Hawaii, exposure to the virus is likely. This infection is self-limiting and typically heals in 4 to 10 days without the need for specific treatment. Choice A is incorrect because seeing a skin specialist may not be necessary for a self-limiting viral infection. Choice B is incorrect as a biopsy is not typically indicated for a clear clinical diagnosis of herpes simplex virus infection. Choice D is incorrect as riboflavin deficiency does not present with clear vesicles and erythema at the lip-skin border.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heart failure. In this case, the most likely cause of the bilateral pitting edema in the lower legs is heart failure. The pitting edema along with the history of hypertension and coronary artery disease suggests fluid overload due to the heart's inability to pump effectively. The normal skin color, absence of redness or tenderness, and strong peripheral pulses indicate that the edema is not caused by venous thrombosis, local inflammation, or blockage of lymphatic drainage. In heart failure, fluid can accumulate in the lower extremities due to the heart's reduced ability to pump blood efficiently, leading to increased pressure in the veins and subsequent fluid leakage into the surrounding tissues.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because dry, flaky cerumen can indicate a change in cilia in the ear canal, potentially leading to conductive hearing loss. This warrants further assessment by the nurse to ensure the patient's aural health is not compromised. A: Eczema lesions typically present differently and are not directly related to dry cerumen. B: While hygiene can contribute to cerumen buildup, dry, flaky cerumen alone does not necessarily indicate poor hygiene. C: Dry, flaky cerumen is not considered a normal finding in a healthy ear and should prompt further evaluation.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Erythematous scaly patch with sharp margins in the sacral area. In patients with AIDS, this presentation is most likely indicative of a common opportunistic infection called tinea corporis. This fungal infection often presents as erythematous scaly patches with well-defined borders. The location in the sacral area is also common due to the warm and moist environment. Choice A, tinea capitis, is a fungal infection of the scalp and is not typically associated with AIDS. Choice B describes a presentation more indicative of a condition like seborrheic dermatitis rather than an AIDS-related skin manifestation. Choice D describes a presentation more typical of tinea corporis, which is not commonly seen in the axilla region in patients with AIDS.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The presence of black and white dots on the tympanic membrane and ear canal wall during an otoscopic examination suggests a yeast or fungal infection. This is because yeast or fungal infections commonly present as white or black dots in the ear canal. Malignancy would typically manifest as abnormal growths or masses, not dots. Viral infections usually do not present as specific dots on the tympanic membrane. Blood in the middle ear would appear as red or pinkish fluid behind the eardrum, not as black and white dots. Therefore, the correct answer is D: Yeast or fungal infection.