ATI RN
Adult Health Med Surg Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 9
A woman in active labor is diagnosed with a prolapsed umbilical cord. What is the priority nursing action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A prolapsed umbilical cord is a medical emergency during labor because it can cause compression of the umbilical cord, leading to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus. The priority nursing action in this situation is to prepare for an immediate cesarean section. This is necessary to quickly deliver the baby and relieve pressure on the cord, preventing potential fetal distress or death. Elevating the mother's hips may help reduce pressure on the cord temporarily, but it is not the definitive treatment for a prolapsed cord. Administering intravenous fluids rapidly may be necessary, but it is not the priority intervention when the fetus is at risk due to a prolapsed cord. Performing a vaginal examination to assess cervical dilation is contraindicated in the presence of a prolapsed umbilical cord as it can further compress the cord and worsen the situation.
Question 2 of 9
Nurse Emma advised the patient to quit smoking because nicotine wil1 contribute to _______.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nicotine, a substance found in cigarettes, is known to have harmful effects on pregnancy. Smoking during pregnancy can lead to numerous complications, one of which is the increased risk of delivering a low birth weight infant. Low birth weight infants are born weighing less than 5.5 pounds (2.5 kilograms) and are at a higher risk of various health issues, developmental delays, and even mortality. Therefore, Nurse Emma advised the patient to quit smoking to reduce the risk of having a low birth weight infant.
Question 3 of 9
A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) expresses a desire to discuss advance care planning. What action should the palliative nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a patient receiving palliative care for end-stage COPD expresses a desire to discuss advance care planning, the palliative nurse should initiate a conversation about advance directives and future care preferences. Advance care planning involves discussing and documenting a patient's preferences regarding future medical care, particularly in situations where the patient may no longer be able to make decisions. This discussion helps ensure that the patient's wishes are respected and followed in the event they are unable to communicate their preferences. By engaging in advance care planning discussions, the nurse can help the patient feel empowered, supported, and in control of their medical care decisions. It also allows healthcare providers to align care with the patient's values and goals, ultimately improving quality of life and ensuring dignity at the end of life.
Question 4 of 9
A 38-year-old woman presents with cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, and dyspareunia. On pelvic examination, the uterus is retroverted and fixed. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be responsible for these findings?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Endometriosis is the most likely condition responsible for the symptoms described in this scenario. Endometriosis is a chronic condition in which endometrial-like tissue grows outside the uterus, commonly affecting the pelvic structures such as the ovaries, fallopian tubes, and pelvic peritoneum. The main symptoms include cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea (painful periods), and dyspareunia (pain during intercourse). The retroverted and fixed uterus on examination may be due to adhesions from endometriosis, causing the uterus to be fixed in position. Endometriosis should be considered in women of reproductive age presenting with these symptoms and pelvic examination findings.
Question 5 of 9
Bulimia is best defined as a /an _____.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bulimia nervosa is best defined as a pathological disorder involving recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain, such as self-induced vomiting, excessive exercise, or misuse of laxatives. It is categorized as an eating disorder rather than a phobic disorder as it involves behaviors related to food consumption and body image, not just fears or phobias. Bulimia is not solely associated with starving oneself, as individuals with bulimia tend to consume large amounts of food during binge episodes. Therefore, the most accurate definition of bulimia is a pathological disorder of binging and vomiting.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with a history of chronic liver disease presents with bruising, petechiae, and mucosal bleeding. Laboratory tests reveal prolonged prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) with decreased platelet count. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition characterized by widespread activation of coagulation leading to both thrombosis and hemorrhage. In patients with chronic liver disease, especially in the setting of advanced cirrhosis, DIC can develop due to factors such as decreased synthesis of coagulation factors and impaired clearance of activated clotting factors. The patient in this scenario presents with signs of both abnormal bleeding (bruising, petechiae, mucosal bleeding) and laboratory findings consistent with DIC, including prolonged prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) along with decreased platelet count.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin-stimulating agents (ESAs) to manage anemia. Which laboratory parameter should be monitored closely during ESA therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Erythropoietin-stimulating agents (ESAs) are prescribed to manage anemia in patients with chronic kidney disease. Monitoring the hemoglobin level closely during ESA therapy is crucial to ensure that the treatment is effective in increasing red blood cell production without causing excessive elevation. Hemoglobin levels should be checked regularly to adjust the ESA dosage accordingly and prevent risks associated with high hematocrit levels, such as increasing blood viscosity and cardiovascular events. Monitoring serum potassium, creatinine, and platelet count are important in the management of chronic kidney disease for different reasons, but for ESA therapy, monitoring hemoglobin is the most essential parameter.
Question 8 of 9
Considering the pain assessment scale (1, is the least pain and 5 is the most painful) Mrs. P described her pain in the scale of 5, you expect that the doctor will order which of the following pain medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a patient describes their pain as a 5 on the pain assessment scale, it indicates severe pain and the need for a strong pain medication. Morphine Sulphate is a potent opioid analgesic that is commonly used to manage severe pain, such as in cases where the pain is rated as 5. Meperidine HCl (Demerol) is another opioid analgesic, but it is not as commonly used due to its side effect profile and potential for toxicity. Fentanyl (Duragesic) is also a potent opioid analgesic that can be used for severe pain, but morphine is often preferred in this situation. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a milder pain reliever and is not typically sufficient for pain described at a level of 5 on the pain scale.
Question 9 of 9
Nurse Gayle is guided that the initial step of delegation is ______.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The initial step of delegation is to determine the competency level of the staff for the task being given. Before delegating a task, a nurse must assess the knowledge, skills, and abilities of the staff member to ensure that they are competent and capable of performing the task safely and effectively. This step is crucial in ensuring that tasks are delegated appropriately and that quality patient care is maintained. By determining the competency level of the staff, Nurse Gayle can make informed decisions about delegation, provide appropriate support and resources, and facilitate effective communication throughout the delegation process.