ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A woman in active labor has been diagnosed with placenta previa. What is the priority nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the case of a woman in active labor with placenta previa, the priority nursing intervention is to prepare for an immediate cesarean section. Placenta previa is a condition in which the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, which can lead to severe bleeding during labor and delivery. The risk of hemorrhage is significant, making a cesarean section the safest option for both the mother and the baby in this situation. It is crucial to act promptly to prevent complications and ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby. Administering intravenous oxytocin to augment labor or inserting a Foley catheter to monitor urine output would not address the immediate risk of hemorrhage associated with placenta previa. Implementing bed rest and continuous fetal monitoring may be part of the overall care plan but not the priority intervention in this urgent situation.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following conditions is characterized by the formation of calcium oxalate or calcium phosphate stones within the renal collecting system?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Nephrolithiasis refers to the formation of stones within the kidney or urinary tract. The most common types of kidney stones are either composed of calcium oxalate or calcium phosphate. When these stones form within the renal collecting system, they can lead to symptoms such as flank pain, hematuria, and urinary obstruction. Ureteropelvic junction (UPJ) obstruction and ureterovesical junction (UVJ) obstruction are specific types of blockages within the urinary system that can be caused by kidney stones but are not characteristic of the stone formation itself. Renal colic is the term used to describe the severe pain associated with the passage of a kidney stone through the ureter.
Question 3 of 9
Whose responsibility is it to obtain informed consent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Obtaining informed consent is primarily the responsibility of the physician. Informed consent is a crucial ethical and legal concept in healthcare that requires the healthcare provider, usually the physician, to ensure that the patient understands the proposed treatment, including the risks, benefits, alternatives, and potential outcomes, before agreeing to proceed with the treatment. While other healthcare professionals, such as nurses, nurse managers, anesthesiologists, and midwives, may also play a role in the informed consent process by providing information and clarifying details, it is ultimately the physician who must obtain the patient's informed consent before any treatment or procedure is performed.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with advanced dementia is no longer able to communicate verbally and displays signs of distress. What should the palliative nurse consider when assessing and managing the patient's distress?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When assessing and managing distress in a patient with advanced dementia who is no longer able to communicate verbally, the palliative nurse should consider exploring non-verbal cues and behaviors to identify the underlying causes of distress. Since the patient cannot communicate through words, it is essential to pay close attention to their non-verbal cues such as facial expressions, body language, and changes in behavior. Distress in dementia patients can be caused by a variety of factors including physical discomfort, unmet needs, environmental stressors, emotional distress, or even medication side effects. By carefully observing and interpreting non-verbal cues, the nurse can gain insight into what might be causing the patient's distress and tailor interventions accordingly. Simply focusing on physical comfort measures may not address the root cause of the distress, and administering sedative medications without understanding the underlying cause is not considered best practice in palliative care for dementia patients.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is preparing to perform a tracheostomy tube change for a patient. What action should the nurse prioritize to ensure patient safety during the procedure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should prioritize using sterile technique during the tracheostomy tube change to ensure patient safety. Tracheostomy procedures involve a direct entry into the airway, making it crucial to prevent infection and reduce the risk of complications. Sterile technique, including proper hand hygiene, wearing sterile gloves, and using sterile equipment, helps minimize the introduction of pathogens into the patient's airway, reducing the risk of infection. By maintaining a sterile field, the nurse can protect the patient from potential harm and promote a successful outcome of the tracheostomy tube change.
Question 6 of 9
Autonomy is the prerogative of the patient to give consent or refusal of treatment with the EXCEPTION of which of the following situations?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Autonomy refers to the patient's right to make decisions about their own health care, including the ability to give consent or refusal of treatment. This right is based on the patient's own beliefs, values, and preferences. However, in the case of an erroneous belief of a head of a church, it may conflict with the patient's own autonomy and ability to make decisions based on their own beliefs. In such a situation, it is important for healthcare providers to respect the patient's autonomy while also addressing any potential conflicts that may arise from external influences such as the erroneous belief of a head of a church.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) demonstrates a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) test and elevated levels of anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) antibodies. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely responsible for the production of these autoantibodies?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The development of autoantibodies such as antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) antibodies in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is primarily attributed to a loss of self-tolerance. Self-tolerance refers to the immune system's ability to recognize and differentiate self-antigens from foreign antigens. In individuals with SLE, there is a breakdown in immune tolerance mechanisms, leading to the production of autoantibodies against self-antigens like nuclear components (e.g., DNA, RNA, histones). This loss of self-tolerance results in the immune system targeting and attacking its tissues, leading to the systemic inflammation and tissue damage characteristic of SLE. The presence of elevated levels of ANA and anti-dsDNA antibodies in this patient suggests an autoimmune response against nuclear material, further supporting the role of self-tolerance breakdown in SLE
Question 8 of 9
A patient presents with progressive weakness, muscle atrophy, and fasciculations, primarily involving the upper and lower extremities. Over time, the patient develops difficulty swallowing and breathing. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The symptoms described are classic for amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), also known as Lou Gehrig's disease. ALS is a progressive neurodegenerative disease that affects nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord, leading to muscle weakness and atrophy. Patients typically present with weakness, muscle atrophy, fasciculations (muscle twitching), and eventually develop difficulty swallowing and breathing due to involvement of the muscles responsible for these functions. Parkinson's disease (Choice A) is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia but does not typically present with muscle atrophy or fasciculations as described in the case. Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) (Choice B) is an acute inflammatory condition affecting peripheral nerves, leading to ascending paralysis, which is usually reversible. Myasthenia gravis (Choice D) is an autoimmune disorder that affects neu
Question 9 of 9
Nurse Ime, is a member of the Quality Assurance team of the hospital and has been always rated as very assertive. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an assertive person?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Being assertive means expressing one's thoughts, beliefs, and feelings in a confident and respectful manner while also considering the perspective of others. It does not involve pushing control on others. Assertive individuals do not impose their beliefs on others but express themselves clearly and confidently, respecting the opinions of others. So, standing up for what one believes in can be assertive, but pushing control on others is not a characteristic of assertiveness.