ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A woman in active labor demonstrates signs of prolonged second stage, characterized by ineffective pushing efforts and slow fetal descent. What maternal condition should the nurse assess for that may contribute to this abnormal labor pattern?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a woman in active labor exhibits signs of prolonged second stage, such as ineffective pushing efforts and slow fetal descent, one of the maternal conditions that should be considered is pelvic floor dysfunction. The pelvic floor muscles play a crucial role in supporting the uterus, bladder, and rectum. If these muscles are weak or dysfunctional, it can lead to difficulty in pushing effectively and impede the descent of the fetus through the birth canal. This can result in prolonged labor and increase the risk of complications for both the mother and the baby. Therefore, assessing for pelvic floor dysfunction is important in addressing the abnormal labor pattern and providing appropriate interventions to support the progress of labor.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following situation is an example of incongruent message?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Incongruent message occurs when verbal and nonverbal communication do not align. Step 2: Choice C states "When what the nurse says and does do not agree," indicating a lack of alignment. Step 3: This inconsistency can lead to confusion or mistrust in communication. Step 4: Choices A, B, and D all describe situations with alignment between words and actions, making them congruent. Summary: Choice C is correct as it exemplifies incongruent communication, while Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they describe congruent messages.
Question 3 of 9
Bel1le has a difficulty tolerating frustration The GOAL Of the nurse is to assist Belle to ________.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: cope with anxiety. The nurse's goal is to address Belle's difficulty tolerating frustration, which likely leads to anxiety. By helping Belle develop coping strategies for managing her anxiety, the nurse can assist her in handling frustration more effectively. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing self-esteem, recognizing needs, and mobilizing resources may be important aspects of Belle's overall care but are not directly related to addressing her difficulty with frustration and anxiety. Focusing on coping with anxiety directly targets the root issue and is the most appropriate goal in this context.
Question 4 of 9
A common chronic complication of diabetes due to the thickening of the capillaries and arterioles of the eye is?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Diabetic retinopathy. This condition is a common complication of diabetes that occurs due to the thickening of capillaries and arterioles in the eye, leading to damage to the retina. This can result in vision problems and even blindness if left untreated. A: Papilledema is the swelling of the optic disc due to increased intracranial pressure, not related to diabetes. B: Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased pressure within the eye, not directly caused by diabetes. C: Retinal detachment is the separation of the retina from the underlying tissues, which is not primarily caused by diabetes-related capillary changes.
Question 5 of 9
Mr. M is receiving hospice care for a terminal illness. He wants to make sure his daughter is allowed to make any decisions regarding his care should he become unable to do so. What document would permit his daughter to do this?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Durable power of attorney. This legal document allows Mr. M to appoint his daughter as his healthcare proxy, granting her the authority to make medical decisions on his behalf if he becomes incapacitated. A: Expressed contract involves clear terms agreed upon by both parties, not relevant here. B: Implied contract arises from actions rather than explicit agreement, not applicable in this situation. D: A living will outlines an individual's medical treatment preferences, but does not grant decision-making authority to another person.
Question 6 of 9
A postpartum client who delivered via cesarean section expresses discomfort when ambulating and performing activities of daily living. What nursing intervention should be prioritized to promote optimal recovery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging early ambulation and progressive activity as tolerated is the most appropriate nursing intervention to promote optimal recovery for a postpartum client who delivered via cesarean section. Early ambulation helps prevent complications such as blood clots, pneumonia, and constipation. It also promotes circulation and facilitates healing by reducing the risk of postoperative complications. Progressive activity helps the client regain strength, mobility, and independence, which are essential for a speedy recovery. Restoring normal movement will also help decrease discomfort and improve the client's overall well-being. In contrast, restricting movement may lead to complications and delayed recovery. Administering oral analgesics as needed is important for pain management, but promoting early ambulation is essential for optimal recovery. Heat packs should not be applied to the incision site as they can increase the risk of infection and interfere with proper wound healing.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following actions should be taken first when encountering a person experiencing an allergic reaction with signs of respiratory distress?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assess the severity of the reaction. This should be the first action taken because it helps determine the urgency of the situation and guides subsequent steps. Assessing the severity allows for appropriate intervention - from calling emergency services if the reaction is severe, to administering medication if necessary. A: Administering an epinephrine auto-injector should only be done if the severity of the reaction warrants it, as it is a potent medication that can have serious side effects if used inappropriately. B: Positioning the person comfortably is important, but assessing the severity of the reaction takes precedence to ensure prompt and appropriate care. C: Monitoring vital signs is important, but assessing the severity of the reaction is crucial in determining the immediate course of action.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with a history of congestive heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which electrolyte imbalance is the patient at risk for developing with furosemide therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works in the ascending loop of Henle to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption. Step 2: Inhibition of sodium reabsorption leads to increased water and electrolyte excretion, including potassium. Step 3: Increased potassium excretion can lead to hypokalemia, which is a common side effect of loop diuretics like furosemide. Step 4: Hypokalemia can be dangerous, especially in patients with congestive heart failure, as it can worsen cardiac function and lead to arrhythmias. Step 5: Therefore, patients with a history of congestive heart failure prescribed furosemide are at risk for developing hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.
Question 9 of 9
To achieve organized work flow in the unit the staff must be aware of the head nurse's role. What is the PRIMARY purpose of supervision and delegation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Enhances the delivery of quality nursing care. Supervision and delegation are essential in ensuring efficient and effective healthcare delivery. By supervising and delegating tasks appropriately, the head nurse can ensure that staff members are performing their duties competently, which ultimately leads to improved quality of patient care. Supervision helps in monitoring staff performance, providing feedback, and offering guidance when needed. Delegation ensures that tasks are allocated to the right staff members based on their skills and abilities, optimizing the workflow. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary purpose of supervision and delegation, which is to enhance the quality of nursing care through effective oversight and task allocation.