ATI RN
Microbiology Chapter 11 Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A woman hospitalized in the surgical department complains of pain in her lower abdomen and in the small of her back, frequent and painful urination. Urine culture test revealed gram-negative oxidase- positive bacilli that formed green mucoid colonies with specific smell. What causative agent can be suspected?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Proteus mirabilis. The patient's symptoms of lower abdominal pain, back pain, frequent/painful urination, and the presence of gram-negative oxidase-positive bacilli forming green mucoid colonies with a specific smell suggest a urinary tract infection caused by Proteus mirabilis. This bacterium is known for causing UTIs and is characterized by its swarming motility and distinctive odor. A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections but does not typically cause UTIs with the specific characteristics described. B: Mycoplasma pneumonia is a bacterium that causes respiratory infections, not UTIs. C: Str.pyogenes (Streptococcus pyogenes) is a common cause of strep throat and skin infections, not UTIs. D: Helicobacter pylori is associated with gastritis and peptic ulcers, not UTIs.
Question 2 of 9
Researchers of a bacteriological laboratory examine tinned meat for botulinic toxin. For this purpose a group of mice was injected with an extract of the material under examination and antitoxic antibotulinic serum of A, B, E types. A control group of mice was injected with the same extract but without antibotulinic serum. What serological reaction was applied?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neutralization. In this experiment, the researchers used antitoxic antibotulinic serum of different types to neutralize the botulinic toxin in tinned meat extract injected into mice. Neutralization is the process of rendering a toxin harmless by combining it with specific antibodies. The purpose of injecting the antitoxic serum was to neutralize the toxin and prevent it from causing harm to the mice. This serological reaction of neutralization directly aligns with the objective of the experiment. Summary of other choices: B: Precipitation - Precipitation involves the formation of a visible insoluble complex when an antigen reacts with its corresponding antibody. This process was not described in the scenario. C: Complement binding - Complement binding involves the activation of the complement system by antigen-antibody complexes. This was not the main focus of the experiment described. D: Double immune diffusion - This technique is used to detect the presence of specific antigens or antibodies
Question 3 of 9
Which bacteria produce urease enzyme to neutralize stomach acid?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Helicobacter pylori is known for producing urease enzyme to neutralize stomach acid. 2. Urease enzyme converts urea into ammonia, buffering the acidic pH. 3. This adaptation allows H. pylori to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. 4. Salmonella typhi, Escherichia coli, and Shigella flexneri do not produce urease. 5. Therefore, C is the correct answer based on the unique urease-producing capability of H. pylori.
Question 4 of 9
Which bacterium is known as a common cause of hospital-acquired infections?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Staphylococcus aureus. This bacterium is known as a common cause of hospital-acquired infections due to its ability to colonize the skin and mucous membranes of healthcare workers and patients. Staphylococcus aureus can cause various infections, including surgical site infections and bloodstream infections, in healthcare settings. Rationale: 1. Clostridium botulinum is known for causing foodborne botulism, not hospital-acquired infections. 2. Treponema pallidum causes syphilis, which is primarily transmitted through sexual contact, not hospital settings. 3. Mycobacterium leprae causes leprosy, which is not commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections. In summary, Staphylococcus aureus is the correct answer as it is a common cause of hospital-acquired infections due to its prevalence in healthcare environments, unlike the other choices which are not typically associated with hospital-acquired infections.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following best describes bacterial conjugation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because bacterial conjugation involves the transfer of genetic material through a sex pilus from a donor bacterium to a recipient bacterium. This process allows for the exchange of genetic material and can lead to increased genetic diversity within bacterial populations. Option B is incorrect because the uptake of free DNA from the environment is known as transformation, not conjugation. Option C is incorrect as transfer of DNA by bacteriophages is called transduction, not conjugation. Option D is incorrect because binary fission is a form of asexual reproduction in bacteria, not a mechanism for genetic exchange.
Question 6 of 9
Fossils of prokaryotes go back __________ billion years.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 3.5 to 4.0 billion years. Prokaryotic fossils date back to around 3.5 to 4.0 billion years ago, based on scientific evidence. This timeframe aligns with the earliest known evidence of life on Earth. Choices A, C, and D have incorrect timelines that do not correspond to the established age range of prokaryotic fossils. Choice A is too broad and includes a range that extends beyond the known fossil record. Choices C and D have much younger timelines, which do not match the historical evidence of prokaryotic life dating back billions of years.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following viruses does not belong to family Paramyxoviridae:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Rubella virus. Rubella virus does not belong to the family Paramyxoviridae because it belongs to the Togaviridae family. The other choices, A (Measles virus), B (Respiratory syncytial virus), and C (Mumps virus) are all members of the Paramyxoviridae family. This classification is based on the genetic and structural characteristics of the viruses. Rubella virus is distinct in its genetic composition and replication cycle compared to the Paramyxoviridae family, making it the correct choice.
Question 8 of 9
A vaginal yeast infection is typically caused by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Candida albicans. Candida albicans is the most common cause of vaginal yeast infections due to its ability to overgrow in warm, moist environments like the vagina. It is a type of fungus that naturally resides in the body, but can cause infection when its growth is not regulated. Histoplasma capsulatum (A) causes a lung infection, Aspergillus niger (C) causes fungal sinusitis, and Saccharomyces cerevisiae (D) is a type of yeast used in baking and brewing, not typically associated with vaginal infections.
Question 9 of 9
What type of immune reaction is most common in identification of vibrio cholerae
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Agglutination. Agglutination is commonly used to identify Vibrio cholerae by clumping together the bacteria with specific antibodies. This reaction occurs when antibodies bind to antigens on the bacterial surface, leading to visible clumps. In contrast, Precipitation, Western blot, and ELISA are not typically used to identify Vibrio cholerae. Precipitation involves antigen-antibody complexes becoming insoluble, Western blot is used for protein detection, and ELISA is commonly used for detecting specific antigens or antibodies in a sample. Agglutination is the most appropriate choice for identifying Vibrio cholerae due to its specific interaction with the bacteria's surface antigens.