ATI RN
Maternal Disorders Questions
Question 1 of 5
A woman has been diagnosed with single intraductal papilloma and has nipple discharge. Which diagnostic tests will most likely be required?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ductogram. In a patient with single intraductal papilloma and nipple discharge, a ductogram is the most appropriate diagnostic test to visualize the ductal system for any abnormalities. A ductogram involves injecting contrast dye into the affected duct to identify any blockages or abnormalities. This test helps in determining the extent of the papilloma and planning appropriate treatment. Rationale for incorrect choices: A: MRI - While MRI can provide detailed images, it is not the primary test for evaluating intraductal papilloma and nipple discharge. B: Mammogram - Mammogram is used for breast imaging but may not provide detailed visualization of the ductal system. C: Core needle biopsy - While a biopsy may be needed to confirm the papilloma, it does not directly assess the ductal system for other abnormalities.
Question 2 of 5
A 17-year-old client presents to the clinic with concerns that she has not begun menstruating. She states that she is a gymnast and has been competing since she was 9 years old. Based on this history, what does the nurse know the client is most likely experiencing?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Primary amenorrhea. A 17-year-old who has not started menstruating is experiencing primary amenorrhea. This is likely due to her intense physical activity as a gymnast, which can delay the onset of menstruation. Secondary amenorrhea (A) occurs when menstruation stops after it has already begun. Polycystic ovary syndrome (B) is characterized by hormonal imbalances and ovarian cysts, not delayed onset of menstruation. Dysmenorrhea (D) refers to painful menstruation, which is not the issue in this case.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is counseling a client on dietary recommendations for dysmenorrhea. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the recommendations?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B - I should avoid pretzels and potato chips. Rationale: 1. Pretzels and potato chips are high in salt, which can contribute to bloating and water retention, exacerbating dysmenorrhea symptoms. 2. Avoiding these snacks can help regulate blood sugar levels and reduce inflammation, leading to improved menstrual discomfort. 3. Choosing healthier snack options like fruits, vegetables, and whole grains can provide essential nutrients and support overall well-being. Incorrect Choices: A. Adopting a vegan diet may or may not directly impact dysmenorrhea symptoms, as it depends on the individual's specific dietary needs and nutrient intake. C. Increasing cranberry juice intake is more commonly recommended for urinary tract infections, not specifically for dysmenorrhea. D. Avoiding dairy is not a universal recommendation for dysmenorrhea, as dairy products can provide essential nutrients like calcium and vitamin D that are beneficial for overall health.
Question 4 of 5
The client calls the nurse and states she has not had a menstrual cycle in 3 months. What does the nurse know is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pregnancy. In the case of secondary amenorrhea, where a woman stops menstruating after previously having regular cycles, pregnancy is the most common cause. Pregnancy leads to a halt in the menstrual cycle due to hormonal changes to support the developing fetus. Other choices are incorrect: A) Weight loss can affect menstruation but is not the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea. C) Cancer can also disrupt the menstrual cycle, but it is not the primary cause in this scenario. D) Menopause typically occurs in women in their late 40s to early 50s, and would not be the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea in a younger woman.
Question 5 of 5
Which pharmacological preparation is the least effective in relieving symptoms of dysmenorrhea?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acetaminophen. Acetaminophen is not an anti-inflammatory medication, unlike Ibuprofen and Naproxen sodium, which are more effective in reducing inflammation and pain associated with dysmenorrhea. Oral contraceptive pills (Choice C) can help regulate hormones to reduce menstrual cramps. Ibuprofen and Naproxen sodium (Choices A and D) are nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) that target prostaglandins, which play a role in causing menstrual cramps. Acetaminophen, being a mild pain reliever, lacks the anti-inflammatory properties needed to effectively alleviate dysmenorrhea symptoms.