ATI RN
Microbiology Chapter 14 Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A woman gave birth to a stillborn baby with numerous malformations. What protozoan disease could cause intrauterine death?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Toxoplasmosis. Toxoplasmosis is caused by the protozoan Toxoplasma gondii, which can be transmitted from mother to fetus during pregnancy leading to stillbirth and malformations. This parasite can cross the placenta and infect the fetus, causing severe complications. Leishmaniasis (B), Malaria (C), and Amebiasis (D) are not known to cause intrauterine death or malformations in the same way as Toxoplasmosis. Leishmaniasis is transmitted by sandflies, Malaria by mosquitoes, and Amebiasis by contaminated food or water.
Question 2 of 9
The symmetry of nucleocapsid of poxviruses is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Complex. Poxviruses have a complex nucleocapsid symmetry due to their unique structure with multiple layers of proteins and genetic material. Isohedral symmetry (B) refers to a regular polyhedron shape, which is not characteristic of poxviruses. Helical symmetry (C) is found in viruses like tobacco mosaic virus, not poxviruses. "All of the above" (D) is incorrect because poxviruses do not exhibit isohedral or helical symmetry.
Question 3 of 9
Agents associated with human disease but generally not a serious health risk are classified in which of the following risk groups?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: RG2. RG2 is appropriate for agents associated with human disease that pose a moderate health risk. These agents may cause disease of varying severity, but generally do not result in serious health consequences. Other choices are incorrect because: A: RG1 is for agents not associated with disease in healthy adults, C: RG3 is for agents associated with serious or lethal human disease, and D: RG4 is for agents that pose a high risk of life-threatening disease and for which there are no treatments.
Question 4 of 9
A 22-year-old patient is a clerk. His working day runs in a conditioned room. In summer he was taken by an acute disease with the following symptoms: fever, dyspnea, dry cough, pleural pain, myalgia, arthralgia. Objectively: moist rales on the right, pleural friction rub. X-ray picture showed infiltration of the inferior lobe. In blood: WBC - 11 · 109/l, stab neutrophils - 6%, segmented neutrophils - 70%, lymphocytes - 8%, ESR - 42 mm/h. What is the etiological factor pneumonia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Streptococcus. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common etiological factor for community-acquired pneumonia in young adults. The symptoms described align with typical pneumococcal pneumonia presentation. Presence of pleural friction rub and infiltration in the X-ray support the diagnosis. The blood work showing elevated WBC count with a left shift (increased neutrophils and low lymphocytes) and elevated ESR is consistent with a bacterial infection. Legionella and Mycoplasma typically present with atypical pneumonia symptoms such as headache, confusion, and GI symptoms, which are not described in the case. Staphylococcus pneumonia is not a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in young adults.
Question 5 of 9
On examination of a patient with disease onset 5 days ago the doctor suspected tularemia and prescribed the patient tularin intracutaneously. What is the purpose of this drug administration in the patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Treatment. Tularin is a specific immunizing agent used for the treatment of tularemia. The purpose of tularin administration in this patient is to provide a targeted treatment against the suspected tularemia infection. It helps the patient's immune system to recognize and fight against the bacteria causing the disease. Explanation for other choices: A: Allergy diagnostics - Tularin is not used for allergy diagnostics, as it is specifically indicated for tularemia treatment. B: Prognosis for the disease - Tularin is not used to predict the outcome of the disease but rather to treat the infection. D: Treatment evaluation - Tularin is not used for evaluating the effectiveness of treatment but for actively treating the tularemia infection.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following statements is accurate in explaining why gram-negative bacteria are generally more resistant to penicillin than gram-positive bacteria
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane that acts as an extra barrier. This outer membrane in gram-negative bacteria contains lipopolysaccharides and porins, which restrict the entry of antibiotics like penicillin. The outer membrane acts as an additional layer of protection, making it harder for penicillin to penetrate and reach its target, the peptidoglycan layer. Choices A, B, and D do not directly address the specific mechanism of resistance seen in gram-negative bacteria. Choice A focuses on transpeptidase enzyme quantity, which is not the primary reason for penicillin resistance. Choice B refers to β-lactamase enzymes in the periplasmic space, which are actually enzymes that degrade penicillin and contribute to resistance, but this is not unique to gram-negative bacteria. Choice D mentions a thicker cell wall, which is a characteristic of gram-positive bacteria, not gram-negative bacteria.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following methods is the simplest heat-related method to sterilize metal?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Direct flaming. Direct flaming is the simplest heat-related method to sterilize metal because it involves passing the metal through a flame to kill microorganisms. The high temperature of the flame effectively destroys any bacteria or spores present on the metal surface. Incineration (A) is not practical for sterilizing metal as it involves burning at extremely high temperatures. Autoclaving (B) uses steam under pressure to sterilize, which is effective but more complex than direct flaming. Indirect heating (D) is not an effective method for sterilizing metal as it does not directly expose the metal to high temperatures required for sterilization.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with a sore throat had a throat smear revealing Gram-positive cocci in pairs. The bacteria were catalase-negative and beta-hemolytic. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. Rationale: 1. Gram-positive cocci in pairs suggest Streptococcus species. 2. Catalase-negative rules out Staphylococcus. 3. Beta-hemolytic indicates Streptococcus pyogenes due to its beta-hemolytic properties. Summary: B: Streptococcus pneumoniae is catalase-negative but not beta-hemolytic. C: Enterococcus faecalis is not typically beta-hemolytic. D: Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and not typically in pairs.
Question 9 of 9
The main structure components of Viruses are:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Nucleic acid and proteins. Viruses contain genetic material in the form of nucleic acids (DNA or RNA) surrounded by a protein coat. This genetic material carries instructions for viral replication. Proteins are also essential components of viruses, serving various functions like facilitating viral entry into host cells. Option A is incorrect as lipids are not main components of viruses. Option B is incorrect as lipids are not typically found in the main structure of viruses. Option D is incorrect as lipids are not primary components of viruses, and glycoproteins are not always present in the main structure of viruses.