ATI RN
Advanced Maternal Age Monitoring Questions
Question 1 of 5
A woman delivers a fetal demise that has lanugo covering the entire body, nails that are present on the fingers and toes, but eyes that are still fused. Prior to the death, the mother stated that she had felt quickening. Based on this information, the nurse knows that the baby is about how many weeks’ gestation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lanugo typically appears around 16-20 weeks and covers the entire body by 22-24 weeks. Nails begin forming at around 18-20 weeks and are fully developed by 22 weeks. Fused eyelids occur up until about 24-26 weeks, after which they open. Quickening (feeling of fetal movement) usually occurs between 18-22 weeks in first-time pregnancies. Therefore, the most likely gestational age is 22 weeks.
Question 2 of 5
A woman missed her menstrual period 1 week ago and has come to the doctor’s office for a pregnancy test. Which placental hormone is measured in pregnancy tests?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and monitoring pregnancy, understanding the role of placental hormones is essential. The correct answer to the question is C) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is a hormone produced by the placenta after implantation occurs. It is the hormone detected in pregnancy tests as it is secreted by the developing placenta early in pregnancy. Therefore, a positive pregnancy test indicates the presence of hCG in the woman's urine or blood. Progesterone (Option A) is an important hormone in pregnancy as it helps maintain the uterine lining to support pregnancy, but it is not typically measured in pregnancy tests. Estrogen (Option B) also plays a crucial role in pregnancy by promoting fetal development, but it is not the primary hormone measured in pregnancy tests. Human placental lactogen (Option D) is produced by the placenta and helps regulate maternal metabolic adaptations during pregnancy, but it is not the hormone typically measured in pregnancy tests. Educationally, understanding which hormone is measured in pregnancy tests is crucial for healthcare professionals working in obstetrics and gynecology, family medicine, and other related fields. This knowledge allows for accurate interpretation of test results and appropriate patient counseling regarding pregnancy confirmation.
Question 3 of 5
What part of the fetal body derives from the mesoderm?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In embryonic development, the mesoderm is one of the three primary germ layers, giving rise to various structures in the body including muscles. Understanding this concept is crucial in pharmacology, especially in the context of maternal age monitoring where fetal development plays a significant role. Option A, nails, are derived from the ectoderm which gives rise to the integumentary system. Option B, oil glands, are also derived from the ectoderm as they are part of the skin structure. Option D, lining of the bladder, is derived from the endoderm which forms the innermost layer of various organs. Educationally, knowing the embryonic origins of different structures helps pharmacologists understand drug effects on specific tissues and organs. In the context of advanced maternal age monitoring, this knowledge can guide healthcare professionals in assessing potential developmental issues in the fetus and making informed decisions regarding maternal and fetal health.
Question 4 of 5
The normal volume of amniotic fluid is approximately _______________ mL at 37 weeks’ gestation.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and maternity care, monitoring amniotic fluid volume is crucial for assessing fetal well-being. The normal volume of amniotic fluid at 37 weeks' gestation is approximately 1000 mL. This volume is essential for protecting the fetus, facilitating fetal movement, and aiding in lung development. Option A (1000 mL) is correct because it reflects the average volume of amniotic fluid at this stage of pregnancy, providing the necessary cushioning and space for the growing fetus. Option B (0.1 mL) is too low and would not be sufficient to support the fetus or allow for normal fetal movement and development. Option C (100 mL) is also too low and would not meet the requirements for normal amniotic fluid volume at 37 weeks' gestation. Option D (10000 mL) is too high and would indicate polyhydramnios, a condition characterized by excessive amniotic fluid which can pose risks to both the mother and the fetus. Understanding the normal range of amniotic fluid volume is essential for healthcare providers involved in maternal-fetal monitoring to identify any deviations from the norm that may require further investigation or intervention to ensure a healthy pregnancy outcome.
Question 5 of 5
When is the earliest interval that chorionic villus sampling (CVS) can be performed during pregnancy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of advanced maternal age monitoring, chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is a prenatal test used to detect genetic abnormalities in the fetus. The correct answer is C) 10 weeks, as this is the earliest interval at which CVS can be safely performed during pregnancy. Performing CVS too early can increase the risk of miscarriage. Option A) 4 weeks is too early for CVS as the placenta and chorionic villi needed for the procedure are not fully developed at this stage. Option B) 8 weeks is also too early for CVS as the procedure requires a sufficient amount of chorionic villi for accurate testing, which may not be available at this stage. Option D) 14 weeks is a later interval than 10 weeks and may delay the availability of important genetic information needed for decision-making during the pregnancy. Educationally, understanding the timing of prenatal tests like CVS is crucial for healthcare providers working with pregnant women, especially those of advanced maternal age who may have an increased risk of genetic abnormalities in their pregnancies. By knowing the appropriate timing for CVS, healthcare providers can ensure the safety and efficacy of the test for their patients.