ATI RN
Microbiology Chapter 13 Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A woman delivered a dead child with multiple developmental defects. What protozoan disease might have caused the intrauterine death?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Toxoplasmosis. Toxoplasmosis is a parasitic infection caused by Toxoplasma gondii, which can be transmitted from mother to fetus during pregnancy, leading to congenital toxoplasmosis. This infection can result in stillbirth, multiple developmental defects, and intrauterine death. Leishmaniasis (B), Malaria (C), and Amebiasis (D) are caused by different parasites and do not typically lead to intrauterine death or developmental defects in the fetus.
Question 2 of 9
During the skill-building session in microbiology the students need to stain the prepared and fixed sputum smears obtained from a tuberculosis patient. What staining technique should be used in this case?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct staining technique for staining sputum smears from a tuberculosis patient is Ziehl-Neelsen staining. This technique uses a carbol fuchsin stain that specifically stains acid-fast organisms like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The steps involved include staining with carbol fuchsin, decolorizing with acid-alcohol, counterstaining with methylene blue, and then examining under a microscope. This staining method is crucial for detecting the acid-fast bacilli characteristic of tuberculosis. Explanation for incorrect choices: A: Gram staining is used to differentiate bacteria into Gram-positive and Gram-negative, not suitable for acid-fast organisms like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. B: Giemsa staining is used for detecting parasites and certain types of white blood cells, not specific for acid-fast bacteria. D: Burry staining is not a recognized staining technique in microbiology for staining acid-fast organisms.
Question 3 of 9
Polyclonal antibodies can respond to multiple antigens:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Polyclonal antibodies are produced by different B cells, each recognizing a different epitope on an antigen. Therefore, they can respond to multiple antigens. This diversity in recognition allows polyclonal antibodies to bind to various targets, making option A true. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the nature of polyclonal antibodies' ability to recognize multiple antigens.
Question 4 of 9
N. Meningitidis grows on
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Chocolate agar. Neisseria meningitidis is a fastidious organism that requires enriched media for growth. Chocolate agar contains heat-treated blood that provides essential nutrients for the growth of N. meningitidis. The other choices, A: Levine agar, B: Lowenstein-Jensen agar, and C: TCBS agar, do not provide the specific nutrients required for the growth of N. meningitidis. Therefore, only choice D, Chocolate agar, supports the growth of N. meningitidis due to its enriched composition.
Question 5 of 9
Young man is hospitalized in pulmonology with complaints of dry cough, fatigue and suffocations. The anamnesis and the lab tests lead to pneumocystis pneumonia. The CD4+ cells are less than 200/mm3. What test you will order:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: For HIV. Pneumocystis pneumonia in a young man with CD4+ cells less than 200/mm3 is highly suggestive of HIV infection. HIV weakens the immune system, leading to opportunistic infections like pneumocystis pneumonia. Testing for HIV is crucial for diagnosis and appropriate management. Explanation for other choices: A: Testing for ureaplasma urealyticum is not indicated in this case as the symptoms and CD4+ cell count point towards an HIV-related infection. C: Testing for Treponema pallidum (syphilis) is not relevant in the context of a young man with pneumocystis pneumonia and low CD4+ cell count. D: Testing for Neisseria gonorrhoea is not appropriate in this scenario as the symptoms and CD4+ cell count suggest an underlying HIV infection rather than a bacterial sexually transmitted infection.
Question 6 of 9
For cultivation of Brucella, pure cultures should be incubated in CO2 enriched atmosphere. What type of breathing is typical for Brucella?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Capnophilic. Brucella requires a CO2 enriched atmosphere for cultivation, making it capnophilic. This is because Brucella is a microaerophilic bacterium that thrives in low oxygen conditions and elevated CO2 levels. Choice B (Facultative anaerobic) and D (Obligate aerobic) are incorrect as Brucella does not grow well under aerobic conditions. Choice C (Obligate anaerobic) is also incorrect as Brucella can grow in the presence of oxygen, although it prefers low oxygen environments.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following microorganisms can be cultured only in the footpads of mice or a species of armadillo?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mycobacterium leprae. This microorganism can only be cultured in the footpads of mice or a species of armadillo due to its specific growth requirements. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (choice A) can be cultured in various culture media in the laboratory. Neisseria gonorrhoeae (choice C) can be cultured on selective media like Thayer-Martin agar. Mycoplasma (choice D) can be cultured in cell cultures or specialized media. Therefore, the unique growth pattern of Mycobacterium leprae makes it the correct answer.
Question 8 of 9
A 9 y.o. child has been taking antibiotics on account of bronchopneumonia for a long time. There appeared pain and burning in the area of mucous membrane of his lips and tongue. Objectively: mucous membrane of lips and tongue has caseous and grey plaques that can be easily removed by a spatula leaving hyperemia foci on their spot. Microscopic examination of the plaques revealed mycelium. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is A: Candidous cheilitis. Candidous cheilitis is a fungal infection caused by Candida species. In this case, the presence of mycelium on the plaques indicates a fungal infection. The symptoms of pain, burning, and grey plaques that can be easily removed leaving hyperemia are typical for Candidous cheilitis. Choice B (Exfoliative cheilitis) is characterized by scaling and peeling of the lips, not plaques with mycelium. Choice C (Leukoplakia) is a precancerous condition causing white plaques that cannot be easily removed. Choice D (Contactant allergic cheilitis) is an allergic reaction causing inflammation, not fungal plaques.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following best describes the function of bacterial capsules?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Enable bacterial adherence to surfaces. Bacterial capsules are a protective layer outside the cell wall that helps bacteria adhere to surfaces and evade host immune responses. This allows bacteria to colonize and infect host tissues. A: Enhancing bacterial motility is typically associated with flagella, not capsules. C: Bacterial DNA replication is not directly affected by capsules. D: Bacterial capsules do play a role in protecting bacteria from desiccation by providing a barrier against drying out. However, the primary function is enabling adherence to surfaces.