Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Breast ultrasound. Bloody drainage from the nipple can be indicative of various conditions such as breast cancer. A breast ultrasound is a non-invasive imaging test that can help visualize any abnormalities in the breast tissue, including masses or tumors. It is commonly used to evaluate breast symptoms like nipple discharge. Radiography (B) is not typically used for evaluating breast conditions. Positron emission testing (PET) (C) is more commonly used in cancer staging and may not be the first-line test for this symptom. Galactography (D) is a specific imaging test used to evaluate the ducts of the breast and may not be the initial test for bloody nipple discharge.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cholinergics. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure due to impaired drainage of aqueous humor. Cholinergics help to constrict the pupil and improve the outflow of aqueous humor, thus reducing intraocular pressure. This medication class is commonly used to manage glaucoma. A: Potassium-sparing diuretics are not typically used in the treatment of glaucoma. They are mainly used to manage conditions like hypertension and heart failure. C: Antibiotics are not indicated for the routine management of glaucoma. They are used to treat infections. D: Loop diuretics are not commonly used in the treatment of glaucoma. They are primarily used to manage conditions like edema and hypertension.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thigh. When administering epinephrine during an anaphylactic reaction, the thigh is the recommended site due to its large muscle mass and quick absorption rate. Steps: 1. Remove safety cap. 2. Firmly push the auto-injector against the thigh until it clicks. 3. Hold in place for a few seconds. 4. Seek medical help immediately. Rationale for incorrect choices: A: Forearm - Not recommended due to smaller muscle mass and slower absorption. C: Deltoid muscle - Not preferred as it may not provide as rapid absorption as the thigh. D: Abdomen - Not ideal due to potential fat layers that could affect absorption speed.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it addresses the key issue of perception of risk among older adults. Many older adults may not perceive themselves as being at risk for HIV infection due to misconceptions or lack of awareness. This principle guides the nurse to tailor educational interventions to address this specific barrier. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the perception of risk among older adults. Older adults' awareness of HIV/AIDS, number of sex partners, or incidence of intravenous drug use are not the primary factors influencing their perception of HIV risk.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Providing thorough oral care before and after meals. This addresses the risk for impaired skin integrity related to Candidiasis in patients with stage 3 HIV by preventing oral Candidiasis, a common fungal infection. Poor oral hygiene can lead to Candidiasis, which can spread to the skin. Thorough oral care reduces the risk of oral Candidiasis, thereby preventing skin integrity issues. Administering prophylactic antibiotics (B) is not indicated for preventing Candidiasis. Promoting nutrition and fluid intake (C) is important for overall health but does not directly address the risk of impaired skin integrity. Applying skin emollients (D) may help with skin dryness but does not directly address the underlying cause of Candidiasis.