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openstax microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A unique number that aids in finding additional toxicological information about a specific substance is the
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: RTECS number. The Registry of Toxic Effects of Chemical Substances (RTECS) number is a unique identifier assigned to chemicals and substances known to cause toxicological effects. It aids in accessing detailed toxicological information such as acute toxicity, carcinogenicity, and mutagenicity. The CAS number (A) is a unique numerical identifier for chemical compounds, not specifically for toxicological information. The atomic number (B) is the number of protons in an element's nucleus, unrelated to toxicology. The DOT ID number (C) is used for hazardous materials transportation, not for toxicological information. Therefore, the RTECS number is the correct choice for finding toxicological information about a specific substance.
Question 2 of 9
A female patient consulted a doctor about a sense of epigastric discomfort, nausea and anorexia. A duodenal content analysis revealed lamblia. What drug should be prescribed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for treating Giardiasis caused by Giardia lamblia, which presents with symptoms such as epigastric discomfort, nausea, and anorexia. Metronidazole effectively targets and eliminates the parasite. Chingamin, Rifampicin, Isoniazid, and Acyclovir are not effective against Giardia lamblia and are used to treat other infections caused by different pathogens. Therefore, Metronidazole is the most appropriate choice in this scenario.
Question 3 of 9
Non-gonococcal urethritis and cervicitis can be caused by
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because Mycoplasma hominis, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Ureaplasma urealyticum are all known to cause non-gonococcal urethritis and cervicitis. These organisms can infect the urogenital tract and lead to inflammation and symptoms in both males and females. Each of these bacteria has been identified as a common cause of these conditions through research and clinical studies. Therefore, since all three organisms are capable of causing non-gonococcal urethritis and cervicitis, the correct answer is D. The other choices (A, B, and C) are incorrect because each of them alone can cause these conditions, making option D the most comprehensive and accurate choice.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with bacterial endocarditis had Gram-positive cocci in chains isolated from blood cultures. The organism was catalase-negative. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. This is because Streptococcus pyogenes is a Gram-positive cocci in chains bacterium that is catalase-negative, making it the most likely causative agent in this scenario. Streptococcus pyogenes is a common pathogen causing bacterial endocarditis. Summary of other choices: B: Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci bacterium but is catalase-positive, so it is unlikely in this case. C: Enterococcus faecalis is a Gram-positive cocci bacterium, but it is catalase-negative, which is not consistent with the given information. D: Micrococcus luteus is a Gram-positive cocci bacterium but is catalase-positive, making it an unlikely causative agent.
Question 5 of 9
The main virulence factor of Neisseria meningitidis is?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The polysaccharide capsule. The capsule of Neisseria meningitidis plays a crucial role in its virulence by preventing phagocytosis, allowing the bacteria to evade the host's immune system. This leads to increased survival and colonization in the host. Choice B: The beta lactamase is incorrect because it is an enzyme that breaks down beta-lactam antibiotics and does not directly contribute to the virulence of Neisseria meningitidis. Choice C: The erythrogenic toxin is incorrect as this toxin is produced by Streptococcus pyogenes, not Neisseria meningitidis. Choice D: None of the above is incorrect as the polysaccharide capsule is indeed a key virulence factor of Neisseria meningitidis.
Question 6 of 9
For the viral structure of rubella virus is true that
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the rubella virus has icosahedral symmetry, meaning it has a spherical shape with 20 equilateral triangular faces. This symmetry is common in many viruses and allows for efficient packaging of genetic material. Choice A is incorrect because the rubella virus does have glycoprotein spikes on its surface. These spikes help the virus attach to host cells. Choice B is incorrect because the rubella virus does have an envelope derived from the host cell membrane. This envelope plays a role in viral entry into host cells. Choice C is incorrect because the rubella virus is an ssRNA virus, not ssDNA. Its genetic material is single-stranded RNA, not DNA. In summary, the rubella virus has icosahedral symmetry and possesses glycoprotein spikes, an envelope, and ssRNA genetic material, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.
Question 7 of 9
Bacterioscopic examination of chancre material revealed some mobile, long, convoluted microorganisms with 8-12 regular coils. These features are typical for:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Treponema. Treponema pallidum is a spirochete bacterium that appears as long, thin, and spiral-shaped microorganisms with 8-12 regular coils under the microscope. This characteristic morphology is specific to Treponema species, making it the correct choice. Borrelia, Leptospira, and Vibrios have different shapes and arrangements under the microscope, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.
Question 8 of 9
The lipophilization is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because lipophilization is the process of removing water from cells under deep vacuum in a frozen state. Dehydration of the cell at a low temperature helps to preserve the cellular structure and components. Choice B is incorrect as hydration does the opposite of what lipophilization aims to achieve. Choice C is incorrect as lipophilization does not involve enriching cells with proteins. Choice D is incorrect as lipophilization does not involve removing protein content from cells.
Question 9 of 9
A patient suffers from pulmonary tuberculosis. During treatment neuritis of visual nerve arose. What drug has caused this by-effect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ethambutol. Ethambutol is known to cause optic neuritis, affecting the visual nerve. It is a well-documented side effect of this drug. Isoniazid (Choice A) is associated with peripheral neuropathy, not optic neuritis. Kanamycin (Choice C) is known for its side effects on the inner ear, causing hearing loss. Rifampicin (Choice D) is not typically associated with optic neuritis but can cause other adverse effects like hepatitis. By process of elimination and knowledge of drug side effects, Ethambutol is the most likely culprit.