A type 1 Diabetes Mellitus patient whom you’ve been treating for a couple of years now presents to your clinic complaining about a recent episode of “unexplained” symptoms as stated by your patient. He tells you that he took his daily insulin shot, but was on a hurry so rushed his way to work without eating anything afterwards. When you ask him about the symptoms he experienced, he says that he is not really sure. What do you expect those symptoms to be based on this clinical scenario?

Correct Answer: A+B

Rationale: The correct answer is A (Palpitations) and B (Tremulousness and shaking). In this scenario, the patient took insulin without eating, leading to hypoglycemia. Palpitations occur due to the body's response to low blood sugar, and tremulousness and shaking are common signs of hypoglycemia. Choice C (Decreased sweating) is not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Choice D (None of the above) is incorrect because the patient's symptoms align with hypoglycemia due to skipping a meal after insulin administration.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: Propylthiouracil is an antithyroid medication that can suppress the immune system over time, leading to an increased risk of infections and sepsis. It inhibits the production of thyroid hormones and can cause agranulocytosis, a condition characterized by a severe decrease in white blood cells, which are essential for fighting infections. Levothyroxine (A) is a thyroid hormone replacement drug, Glybenclamide (B) is an anti-diabetic medication, and Bromocriptine (C) is a dopamine agonist used to treat various conditions, none of which are associated with an increased risk of infections and sepsis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Troglitazone. Troglitazone is known to induce hepatic injury due to its potential to cause liver toxicity. Troglitazone was withdrawn from the market due to its severe hepatotoxic effects. Ciglitazone, Pioglitazone, and Rosiglitazone are other thiazolidinediones, but they are not as strongly associated with liver injury as Troglitazone.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: epididymis. Sperm maturation occurs in the epididymis, a coiled tube located on the testes where sperm gains motility and fertilization capacity. The seminiferous tubules produce sperm, but maturation occurs in the epididymis. The vas deferens is a duct that transports sperm from the epididymis to the urethra, where it is ejaculated. The urethra is not involved in sperm maturation but serves as a passageway for sperm and urine. Therefore, the epididymis is the correct choice for sperm maturation.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 28 days. The average menstrual cycle typically lasts around 28 days, starting from the first day of one period to the first day of the next. This duration allows for the completion of the hormonal changes and phases involved in the menstrual cycle, including menstruation, the follicular phase, ovulation, and the luteal phase. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the typical duration of a menstrual cycle and may not provide sufficient time for these hormonal processes to occur properly.