A total thyroidectomy is ordered following discovery of a cold nodule. In this case of hyperthyroidism versus malignancy, the nurse anticipates that the patient will have:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A complete thyroidectomy also. In the case of a cold nodule, which indicates potential malignancy, a total thyroidectomy is warranted to remove the entire thyroid gland to prevent the spread of cancer. A partial thyroidectomy, as in choices B and C, would not be sufficient in addressing malignancy. Administering thyroid medication, as in choice D, would not be appropriate for treating malignancy. Therefore, the correct approach is to perform a total thyroidectomy to ensure complete removal of the affected gland and to address both hyperthyroidism and potential malignancy.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use a low-pitched voice. This is because elderly individuals may have age-related hearing loss, making it difficult for them to hear higher frequencies. Using a low-pitched voice can help ensure that the client can hear and understand the nurse clearly. A: Leaning and shouting at the ear of the client may come across as aggressive and disrespectful. C: Opening the mouth wide while talking is not necessary and may be seen as patronizing. D: Using a medium-pitched voice may still be too difficult for the elderly client to hear clearly due to age-related hearing loss.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Citrus fruits and green leafy vegetables. Citrus fruits and green leafy vegetables are good sources of Vitamin C and iron, which are essential for individuals with iron deficiency anemia. Vitamin C enhances the absorption of iron from plant-based sources, while green leafy vegetables provide iron. Bananas and nuts (choice B) are not significant sources of iron. Coffee and tea (choice C) can inhibit iron absorption. Dairy products (choice D) are not high in iron and can also inhibit iron absorption. Therefore, choosing citrus fruits and green leafy vegetables indicates understanding of the dietary instructions for managing iron deficiency anemia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administering platelets, as ordered to maintain an adequate platelet count. In ITP, the client has low platelet count leading to risk of bleeding. Administering platelets helps raise platelet levels and prevent bleeding complications. Teaching coughing and deep-breathing techniques (A) is important for preventing respiratory infections but not directly related to ITP. Giving aspirin (C) is contraindicated as it can further decrease platelet count. Administering stool softeners (D) is important for preventing straining but not specific to managing ITP.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "Ineffective thermoregulation related to dehydration." The client's high serum glucose level of 618mg/dl indicates severe hyperglycemia, leading to dehydration. The client's hot, dry skin and elevated temperature can be signs of dehydration, impacting the body's ability to regulate temperature. Dehydration can also affect other vital signs, contributing to the elevated heart rate and low blood pressure. Addressing ineffective thermoregulation is crucial as it can lead to further complications. Choices A, B, and C are not the highest priority because addressing dehydration and ineffective thermoregulation takes precedence due to the immediate risk of complications such as heatstroke or hypothermia. Deficient volume, decreased cardiac output, and imbalanced nutrition are important but not as urgent in this scenario.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Developing nursing diagnoses before completing the database. This is incorrect because developing nursing diagnoses should be based on a comprehensive assessment and analysis of the patient's data. By developing nursing diagnoses before completing the database, the new nurse may overlook important information that could impact the accuracy of the diagnosis and subsequent care plan. Choice A (intravenous antibiotics) is incorrect because assigning a nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection for a patient on IV antibiotics is a common and appropriate practice given the increased risk of infection associated with invasive procedures. Choice B (Completing an interview and physical examination before adding a nursing diagnosis) is incorrect because nursing diagnoses should be developed based on the data collected during the assessment process, which includes the interview and physical examination. It is not necessary to complete the entire assessment before assigning a nursing diagnosis. Choice D (Including cultural and religious preferences in the database) is incorrect because while it is important to consider cultural and religious preferences in care planning, this does not directly relate to the

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: absence seizures. Barbiturate anticonvulsants are not effective in treating absence seizures because they can worsen this type of seizure by suppressing brain activity. Barbiturates are typically used to treat tonic-clonic seizures and partial seizures, but not absence seizures. Febrile seizures are typically managed without barbiturate anticonvulsants. In summary, barbiturate anticonvulsants are effective in treating partial seizures and tonic-clonic seizures, but not absence seizures or febrile seizures due to their mechanisms of action and potential side effects.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct initial action for the nurse is to ask the patient about the facial grimacing with movement (Choice C). This is important because the patient may not accurately express their pain level verbally. By addressing the discrepancy between the patient's verbal report and non-verbal cues, the nurse can gather more information to assess the patient's pain accurately. By directly communicating with the patient, the nurse can ensure that the appropriate interventions are provided. Choice A is incorrect because it disregards the need to address the patient's pain assessment. Choice B assumes the patient's preference without further clarification. Choice D jumps to administering pain medication without fully assessing the situation, which could lead to inappropriate treatment.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Classic full-blown AIDS presents with tumors and opportunistic infections due to severe immune system suppression. Step 2: These manifestations occur when CD4 cell count drops significantly, leading to inability to fight infections. Step 3: Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy (Choice A) can be seen in early HIV infection, not necessarily in full-blown AIDS. Step 4: Sudden weight loss, fever, and malaise (Choice B) are non-specific symptoms seen in various conditions, not specific to AIDS. Step 5: Fever, weight loss, night sweats, and diarrhea (Choice D) are common symptoms but lack the specificity of tumors and opportunistic infections seen in classic full-blown AIDS.