A total thyroidectomy is ordered following discovery of a cold nodule. In this case of hyperthyroidism versus malignancy, the nurse anticipates that the patient will have:

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Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 9

A total thyroidectomy is ordered following discovery of a cold nodule. In this case of hyperthyroidism versus malignancy, the nurse anticipates that the patient will have:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A complete thyroidectomy also. In the case of a cold nodule, which indicates potential malignancy, a total thyroidectomy is warranted to remove the entire thyroid gland to prevent the spread of cancer. A partial thyroidectomy, as in choices B and C, would not be sufficient in addressing malignancy. Administering thyroid medication, as in choice D, would not be appropriate for treating malignancy. Therefore, the correct approach is to perform a total thyroidectomy to ensure complete removal of the affected gland and to address both hyperthyroidism and potential malignancy.

Question 2 of 9

For a client diagnosed with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), which nursing intervention is appropriate?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administering platelets, as ordered to maintain an adequate platelet count. In ITP, the client has low platelet count leading to risk of bleeding. Administering platelets helps raise platelet levels and prevent bleeding complications. Teaching coughing and deep-breathing techniques (A) is important for preventing respiratory infections but not directly related to ITP. Giving aspirin (C) is contraindicated as it can further decrease platelet count. Administering stool softeners (D) is important for preventing straining but not specific to managing ITP.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following would the nurse evaluate as laboratory data that support the occurrence of AIDS?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 200 CD4+ cells. In AIDS, the immune system is severely compromised, leading to a decrease in CD4+ T cells. A CD4+ count below 200 cells/mm3 is a key indicator of AIDS, as it signifies advanced immunodeficiency. Choices A, B, and C all have CD4+ cell counts above 200, which would not support the occurrence of AIDS. Therefore, the nurse would evaluate a CD4+ count of 200 cells as laboratory data that support the occurrence of AIDS.

Question 4 of 9

Another girl was bitten by a poisonous snake. All of the following are true except

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because exercising the bitten extremity can increase the spread of the venom. Choice B is correct as poisonous snake bites typically leave two fang marks. Choice C is correct as immediate severe pain and swelling are common symptoms of a poisonous snake bite. Choice D is incorrect as a tourniquet should not be used for snake bites as it can lead to complications such as tissue damage and increased risk of infection.

Question 5 of 9

After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, a client is likely to undergo hormone replacement therapy. A transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy is performed to treat which type of cancer?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy is the surgical removal of the pituitary gland's adenohypophysis. 2. The procedure is used to treat pituitary tumors, which can be benign or malignant, but commonly referred to as pituitary adenomas. 3. Pituitary adenomas may secrete hormones excessively, leading to various endocrine disorders. 4. Hormone replacement therapy is required post-surgery to manage hormonal deficiencies. 5. Therefore, the correct answer is C (Pituitary carcinoma). Summary: A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not involve the pituitary gland, which is the primary target of a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy.

Question 6 of 9

The nurse notes that a client’s wound has not improved despite consistent wound care as outlined in the care plan. What should the nurse do next?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Reassessing the wound and client's condition allows the nurse to identify any factors contributing to the lack of improvement. Step 2: It helps determine if the current care plan needs modifications or if there are underlying issues affecting healing. Step 3: This step ensures a comprehensive evaluation before making any changes to the care plan, promoting evidence-based practice. Step 4: Choosing this option aligns with the nursing process of assessment, which is crucial for making informed decisions in client care. Summary: Option A is correct as it emphasizes the importance of reassessment to gather more information and make informed decisions. Discontinuing the care plan (Option B) without assessment can be harmful. Increasing dressing changes (Option C) may not address the underlying issue. Referring immediately (Option D) may be premature without reassessment.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the ff vitamins does a client lack if there is a problem with the absorption of calcium?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Vitamin D. Vitamin D is essential for the absorption of calcium in the intestines. Without sufficient vitamin D, the body cannot effectively absorb calcium, leading to potential issues with calcium absorption. Vitamin A (choice A) is not directly involved in calcium absorption. Vitamin B (choice B) and Vitamin C (choice C) also do not play a significant role in calcium absorption. Therefore, the lack of Vitamin D is the most likely cause for problems with calcium absorption.

Question 8 of 9

Patients are at risk for overwhelming postsplenectomy infection (OPSI) following splenectomy. Which of the ff. symptoms alerts the nurse to this possibility?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fever. Following splenectomy, patients are at risk for OPSI due to impaired immune response. Fever is a key symptom of infection and should alert the nurse to this possibility. Bruising around the operative site (A) is expected post-surgery. Pain (B) is common after surgery and may not specifically indicate OPSI. Irritability (C) is a vague symptom and not specific to OPSI. In summary, fever is the most concerning symptom as it can indicate an underlying infection in a postsplenectomy patient.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following is usually the first symptom of a cataract that the nurse would expect a patient to report during assessment?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blurring of vision. This is typically the first symptom of a cataract because the clouding of the lens causes light to scatter, leading to blurred vision. Dry eyes (A) and eye pain (C) are not typically associated with cataracts. Loss of peripheral vision (D) is more commonly seen in conditions like glaucoma. In summary, blurring of vision is the hallmark symptom of cataracts due to lens clouding, distinguishing it from other eye conditions.

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