ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A teacher in a preschool is diagnosed with giardiasis. Which of the following medications will be administered to treat the diarrhea and abdominal distention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Metronidazole (Flagyl) is the drug of choice for treating giardiasis, which is a common cause of diarrhea and abdominal distention. Sulfasalazine (Choice A) is used to treat inflammatory bowel disease. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Choice C) is commonly used for urinary tract infections and Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. Doxycycline (Choice D) is commonly used to treat various bacterial infections but is not the first-line treatment for giardiasis.
Question 2 of 5
During a flu shot clinic, one of the questions the student nurse asks relates to whether the client has a history of Guillain-Barr© syndrome. The client asks, 'What is that?' How should the nursing student reply?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because Guillain-Barr© syndrome is an acute immune-mediated polyneuropathy that can lead to paralysis affecting movement on both sides of the body, and in severe cases, involving the respiratory muscles. Choice B is incorrect as it describes local swelling, not the systemic effects of Guillain-Barr© syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a degenerative disease affecting mobility, not an acute immune-mediated condition like Guillain-Barr© syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as it describes flu-like symptoms following a flu shot, which is not the same as Guillain-Barr© syndrome.
Question 3 of 5
A client with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department with a complaint of double vision. Which cranial nerve is most likely involved?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Cranial nerve VI (Abducens). Chronic alcoholism can lead to damage to the abducens nerve, which controls the lateral movement of the eye. This damage can result in symptoms like double vision. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory) is responsible for the sense of smell and is not related to eye movement. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) controls most of the eye movements but is less likely to be affected in chronic alcoholism than the abducens nerve. Cranial nerve VII (Facial) is responsible for facial movements and is not associated with double vision.
Question 4 of 5
A client with a history of tuberculosis (TB) is experiencing a recurrence of symptoms. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate being ordered?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A chest x-ray is the most appropriate diagnostic test for a client with a history of tuberculosis experiencing a recurrence of symptoms. A chest x-ray is commonly used to visualize the lungs and check for signs of active tuberculosis, such as abnormal shadows or nodules. While a sputum culture (Choice A) can confirm the presence of TB bacteria, it may not be the initial test ordered for a recurrence. Bronchoscopy (Choice B) and CT scan of the chest (Choice D) are more invasive and usually reserved for cases where the chest x-ray is inconclusive or to further assess complications, rather than as the initial diagnostic test for a recurrence of tuberculosis.
Question 5 of 5
A client with atrial fibrillation is at risk for which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A client with atrial fibrillation is at increased risk of thromboembolism due to blood stasis in the atria. This can lead to the formation of blood clots, which may travel to the lungs and cause a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is a serious complication of atrial fibrillation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while atrial fibrillation can lead to complications such as stroke or heart failure, it is specifically associated with an increased risk of pulmonary embolism due to the clot formation associated with the condition.