ATI RN
Wongs Essentials of Pediatric Nursing 11th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A surgical intervention that can cause substantial remission of myasthenia gravis is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Thymectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of the thymus gland. The thymus is a key component of the immune system and is believed to play a role in the development of myasthenia gravis (MG). In some cases, particularly in younger patients with early onset MG or with thymoma (a tumor of the thymus), thymectomy can lead to substantial remission of MG symptoms or even a cure. By removing the thymus gland, the abnormal immune response in MG may be reduced, resulting in improved muscle strength and decreased symptoms. It is worth noting that thymectomy is not always indicated for all patients with MG and should be considered on a case-by-case basis in consultation with a healthcare provider specialized in neuromuscular diseases.
Question 2 of 5
You are explaining the risk of leukemia in children with Down syndrome to medical students; your discussion will include all the following statements EXCEPT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the context of pediatric nursing, understanding the risk of leukemia in children with Down syndrome is crucial for providing effective care. In this scenario, option D is the correct answer ("children with Down syndrome who develop AML demonstrate remarkable sensitivity to antimetabolites") because children with Down syndrome who develop acute myeloid leukemia (AML) actually demonstrate resistance rather than sensitivity to antimetabolites, making this statement incorrect. Option A is incorrect because acute leukemia does occur more frequently in children with Down syndrome than in the general population, making it a relevant statement to include in the discussion. Option B is incorrect because AML is indeed more common in children with Down syndrome compared to acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), so this statement is also important to discuss. Option C is incorrect because children with Down syndrome actually have a slightly superior outcome ratio of ALL/AML in general, making this statement inaccurate. Understanding these nuances is essential for medical students to provide accurate and comprehensive care to children with Down syndrome who may be at risk for leukemia. This educational context emphasizes the importance of precise knowledge in pediatric oncology for optimizing patient outcomes.
Question 3 of 5
Neuroblastoma can be associated with paraneoplastic syndromes. All the following features are paraneoplastic EXCEPT
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Neuroblastoma is a common solid tumor in children and can present with paraneoplastic syndromes, which are conditions caused by substances released by tumor cells. In this case, the correct answer is B) cerebellar ataxia and increased body coordination. This is because cerebellar ataxia is not typically associated with neuroblastoma-related paraneoplastic syndromes. Option A) uncontrollable jerking movements could be associated with opsoclonus-myoclonus syndrome, a paraneoplastic syndrome seen in neuroblastoma. Option C) unilateral ptosis, myosis, and anhidrosis are features of Horner syndrome, which can be associated with neuroblastoma. Option D) profound secretory diarrhea can be seen in VIPoma syndrome, another paraneoplastic syndrome associated with neuroblastoma. Understanding paraneoplastic syndromes associated with neuroblastoma is crucial for pediatric nurses to recognize early signs and symptoms, provide appropriate care, and collaborate effectively with the healthcare team for optimal patient outcomes. It is essential for nurses to have a comprehensive understanding of pediatric oncology to deliver safe and competent care to pediatric oncology patients and their families.
Question 4 of 5
Although the etiology of hepatoblastoma is unknown, there are many associated risk factors for development of hepatoblastoma EXCEPT
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is E, which is not provided in the options. To provide a comprehensive educational rationale: The correct answer should be explained as follows: Hepatoblastoma is a rare liver cancer that primarily affects young children. While the exact cause is unknown, there are several associated risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing hepatoblastoma. These risk factors can include genetic syndromes like Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome and familial adenomatous polyposis syndrome. Now, let's address why the other options are incorrect: A) Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome: This option is incorrect because Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome is actually a risk factor for hepatoblastoma. Children with this syndrome have an increased risk of developing this type of liver cancer. B) Familial adenomatous polyposis syndrome: Similarly, this option is incorrect because individuals with familial adenomatous polyposis syndrome are also at an increased risk of developing hepatoblastoma. C) Prematurity: Prematurity is not a known risk factor for hepatoblastoma. While premature infants may face other health challenges, this is not typically associated with an increased risk of hepatoblastoma. D) Low birth weight: Low birth weight is also not a known risk factor for hepatoblastoma. Although low birth weight infants may have other health concerns, it is not directly linked to the development of this type of liver cancer. Educational context: Understanding the risk factors associated with hepatoblastoma is crucial for healthcare professionals working in pediatric oncology. By recognizing these risk factors, healthcare providers can monitor high-risk patients more closely and potentially diagnose hepatoblastoma at an earlier stage, leading to improved treatment outcomes.
Question 5 of 5
Nearly all cervical carcinomas contain human papillomavirus (HPV). Which of the following types is never associated with such malignancy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of cervical carcinomas and human papillomavirus (HPV) association, it is crucial to understand the specific types of HPV that are linked to malignancy. The correct answer, Type 6, is never associated with cervical carcinoma. This is because Type 6 HPV strains are known to cause benign genital warts rather than malignant transformations in cervical cells. Type 16 and Type 18 HPV strains are the most common high-risk types associated with cervical cancer. These strains have been extensively studied and shown to have a strong correlation with the development of cervical malignancies. Type 31 is another high-risk HPV type that can lead to cervical cancer, although it is not as prevalent as Type 16 and Type 18. From an educational perspective, understanding the specific HPV types linked to cervical cancer is essential for healthcare professionals, especially those working in the field of pediatrics. By knowing which types of HPV are most commonly associated with malignancy, healthcare providers can better inform their patients about prevention strategies such as HPV vaccination and regular screening. This knowledge also underscores the importance of early detection and intervention to prevent the progression of HPV-related cervical abnormalities to cancer.