A surgeon accidentally cuts his patient's bladder while attempting to remove his appendix. The surgeon could be guilty of _________

Questions 165

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Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A surgeon accidentally cuts his patient's bladder while attempting to remove his appendix. The surgeon could be guilty of _________

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Malpractice. Malpractice refers to professional negligence or failure to perform duties according to accepted standards of practice. In this scenario, the surgeon's act of cutting the patient's bladder during an appendectomy could be considered a breach of duty and failure to provide the expected standard of care, which falls under malpractice. Battery (A) involves intentional harmful or offensive contact without consent. Negligence (B) is the failure to exercise reasonable care, but in this case, it was more than just a lack of care. Tort (D) refers to a civil wrong that causes harm, but malpractice is a specific type of tort related to professional negligence.

Question 2 of 9

A patient presents with pruritic, erythematous patches with silvery scales on the elbows, knees, and scalp. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Psoriasis. Psoriasis is characterized by pruritic, erythematous patches with silvery scales, commonly found on the elbows, knees, and scalp. This presentation matches the patient's symptoms. Eczema (choice A) typically presents with red, inflamed, and itchy skin patches. Pityriasis rosea (choice C) manifests as a herald patch followed by smaller scaly patches in a "Christmas tree" distribution. Seborrheic dermatitis (choice D) involves oily, yellowish, scaly patches mainly on the scalp, face, and ears, and does not typically present with silvery scales.

Question 3 of 9

The nurse assesses the uterine fundus of the mother. Which part of the abdomen will the nurse begin?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Umbilicus. The nurse begins assessing the uterine fundus at the level of the umbilicus as it is a standard reference point for postpartum fundal height measurement. This location allows for consistency and accuracy in tracking the descent of the uterus back into the pelvic cavity. Starting at the umbilicus also helps in monitoring the involution process and prevents potential errors in fundal height assessment. Symphysis pubis (A) is too low and not typically used as a reference point for uterine fundal assessment. Midline (B) is vague and does not provide a specific anatomical landmark. Sides of the abdomen (D) do not give a standardized starting point for measuring the uterine fundus, leading to potential variability in assessment.

Question 4 of 9

A patient admitted to the ICU develops acute delirium with agitation and hallucinations. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's delirium?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Implement environmental modifications to promote sleep hygiene. Delirium is often triggered by environmental factors like noise, light, and disruption of sleep. By optimizing the environment for rest and minimizing stimuli, the patient's delirium can improve. This approach focuses on addressing the root cause rather than just managing symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because antipsychotic medications can worsen delirium and are not recommended as first-line treatment. Choice C is not the priority as ruling out focal deficits may be important but does not directly address the delirium. Choice D is incorrect as benzodiazepines can exacerbate delirium and are not recommended due to their potential to worsen cognitive function.

Question 5 of 9

The 1icensure examination which is administered by the Professional Regulation Commission, Board of Nursing is given to ______.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the licensure examination aims to assess if candidates meet the expected competency standards to practice nursing safely and effectively. This process ensures that only qualified individuals enter the profession, maintaining high standards of care. Choice A is incorrect because the exam goes beyond applying theory to include practical skills. Choice B is incorrect as protecting the public is the outcome of ensuring competency. Choice C is incorrect as the exam evaluates the full scope of nursing practice, not just its application.

Question 6 of 9

Nurse has a complaint from a parent for administering gwrong dose of vaccine to the child. This act is a form of _______.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Negligence. Negligence refers to the failure to exercise the care that a reasonably prudent person would under similar circumstances. In this case, administering the wrong dose of a vaccine indicates a lack of proper care or attention to detail, which constitutes negligence. A: Battery involves intentional harmful or offensive contact without consent, which is not applicable in this situation. C: Assault involves the threat of harm or unwanted physical contact, which is also not relevant here. D: Malpractice typically refers to professional misconduct or negligence by a healthcare provider, which could be a broader term but not specific to the situation described.

Question 7 of 9

To achieve organized work flow in the unit the staff must be aware of the head nurse's role. What is the PRIMARY purpose of supervision and delegation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Enhances the delivery of quality nursing care. Supervision and delegation are essential in ensuring efficient and effective healthcare delivery. By supervising and delegating tasks appropriately, the head nurse can ensure that staff members are performing their duties competently, which ultimately leads to improved quality of patient care. Supervision helps in monitoring staff performance, providing feedback, and offering guidance when needed. Delegation ensures that tasks are allocated to the right staff members based on their skills and abilities, optimizing the workflow. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary purpose of supervision and delegation, which is to enhance the quality of nursing care through effective oversight and task allocation.

Question 8 of 9

Nurse Mauve is now on ethical dilemma. This occurs when _______.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because an ethical dilemma arises when there is a conflict between two or more ethical principles, leading to a difficult decision-making situation for Nurse Mauve. This involves weighing the benefits and consequences of each ethical principle to determine the best course of action. Choice A is incorrect as time pressure does not define an ethical dilemma. Choice B is incorrect because ethical dilemmas involve conflicting choices, not unclear ones. Choice C is incorrect as the conflict in an ethical dilemma is not necessarily with a superior but can be internal or with other stakeholders.

Question 9 of 9

A postpartum client who delivered via cesarean section expresses concerns about breastfeeding positions and comfort. What nursing intervention should be prioritized to address the client's concerns?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Demonstrating breastfeeding positions that minimize pressure on the incision site should be the nursing intervention prioritized to address the client's concerns. This is important because it ensures that the client can breastfeed comfortably while also protecting the healing incision. By showing the client appropriate positions, such as the football hold or side-lying position, the nurse can help minimize discomfort and promote successful breastfeeding without compromising the cesarean incision's healing process. It is crucial to support the client in establishing a good latch and positioning to encourage proper milk transfer and bonding while being mindful of the incision site.

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