A stool sample from a patient with persistent diarrhea revealed cysts with four nuclei. What is the most likely causative agent?

Questions 80

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

microbiology chapter 11 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A stool sample from a patient with persistent diarrhea revealed cysts with four nuclei. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. This is because it is the only choice that matches the description of cysts with four nuclei, characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica. Entamoeba histolytica is a protozoan parasite that causes amoebiasis, leading to symptoms like persistent diarrhea. The other choices can be eliminated for the following reasons: B: Balantidium coli - It is a ciliated protozoan that causes dysentery in humans but does not produce cysts with four nuclei. C: Giardia lamblia - It is a flagellated protozoan that causes giardiasis, but it forms cysts with only two nuclei. D: Trichomonas hominis - It is a flagellated protozoan found in the human intestine, but it does not produce cysts with four nuclei. Therefore, based on the description of cysts with four nuclei in the stool sample,

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following sites of the human body does not have a normal flora?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Blood. Normal flora refers to the microorganisms that naturally inhabit specific areas of the body. Blood is considered a sterile environment in healthy individuals, meaning it does not harbor any microorganisms under normal circumstances. In contrast, the intestine, skin, and vagina all have normal flora as they provide suitable environments for various microbial species to thrive. The presence of normal flora in these sites helps maintain a balance and protect against pathogenic invaders. Blood, being a vital and sterile fluid, is not meant to have any resident microbial populations.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following characteristics of mumps infection is NOT true:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Mumps is a contagious disease transmitted through air droplets and direct contact. 2. The correct answer is A because mumps can infect both humans and animals. 3. Choice B is incorrect as mumps is vaccine-preventable. 4. Choice C is correct as mumps is highly contagious. 5. Choice D is accurate as mumps is transmitted via air droplets and direct contact. Summary: The correct answer is A because mumps can infect both humans and animals, making it untrue that only humans can be infected. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as mumps is vaccine-preventable, highly contagious, and transmitted through air droplets and direct contact.

Question 4 of 9

What type of immune reaction is most common in identification of vibrio cholerae

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Agglutination. Agglutination is commonly used to identify Vibrio cholerae by clumping together the bacteria with specific antibodies. This reaction occurs when antibodies bind to antigens on the bacterial surface, leading to visible clumps. In contrast, Precipitation, Western blot, and ELISA are not typically used to identify Vibrio cholerae. Precipitation involves antigen-antibody complexes becoming insoluble, Western blot is used for protein detection, and ELISA is commonly used for detecting specific antigens or antibodies in a sample. Agglutination is the most appropriate choice for identifying Vibrio cholerae due to its specific interaction with the bacteria's surface antigens.

Question 5 of 9

A woman hospitalized in the surgical department complains of pain in her lower abdomen and in the small of her back, frequent and painful urination. Urine culture test revealed gram-negative oxidase- positive bacilli that formed green mucoid colonies with specific smell. What causative agent can be suspected?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Proteus mirabilis. The patient's symptoms of lower abdominal pain, back pain, frequent/painful urination, and the presence of gram-negative oxidase-positive bacilli forming green mucoid colonies with a specific smell suggest a urinary tract infection caused by Proteus mirabilis. This bacterium is known for causing UTIs and is characterized by its swarming motility and distinctive odor. A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections but does not typically cause UTIs with the specific characteristics described. B: Mycoplasma pneumonia is a bacterium that causes respiratory infections, not UTIs. C: Str.pyogenes (Streptococcus pyogenes) is a common cause of strep throat and skin infections, not UTIs. D: Helicobacter pylori is associated with gastritis and peptic ulcers, not UTIs.

Question 6 of 9

A patient presents with a history of diarrhea of several weeks duration. Which of the following may be the cause?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: - Yersinia enterocolitica is a common cause of diarrhea due to contaminated food or water. - It typically presents with symptoms such as abdominal pain, fever, and diarrhea. - The other choices are unlikely causes of prolonged diarrhea, as Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough, Neisseria meningitidis causes meningitis, and Corynebacterium diphtheria causes diphtheria.

Question 7 of 9

There is/are __________ level(s) of biosafety depending on the organisms handled.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (4) because biosafety levels range from 1 to 4, each corresponding to the level of containment required when handling different types of organisms. BSL-1 is for low-risk agents, while BSL-4 is for dangerous pathogens. Choice A (1) is incorrect as there are multiple levels, not just one. Choice B (2) and C (3) are incorrect as they do not account for all the levels of biosafety required for handling various organisms. Therefore, D is the correct answer as it encompasses the full range of biosafety levels.

Question 8 of 9

Which staining method is used for proving the formation of spores

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Moeller. Moeller staining method is specifically designed to detect spores due to its ability to differentiate between the spore and the vegetative cell. It involves applying multiple stains such as malachite green, safranin, and heat to visualize the endospore structure. This method is essential for proving the formation of spores as it highlights the resistant spore structures within the bacterial cell. A: Klett and Gins is not used for spore staining. B: Ziehl-Neelsen is used for acid-fast staining, not spore staining. C: Gram and Loeffler's are used for gram staining, not spore staining.

Question 9 of 9

Gram (-) bacteria have basal structure consisting of:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 4-10% of all materials building the cell wall. Gram (-) bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer making up 4-10% of the cell wall. This is in contrast to Gram (+) bacteria which have a thicker peptidoglycan layer. Choice A is too high a percentage for Gram (-) bacteria. Choice B is too low as it would not provide enough structural support. Choice D is also too high and would not accurately reflect the composition of Gram (-) bacteria.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days