A stool sample from a patient with persistent diarrhea revealed cysts with four nuclei. What is the most likely causative agent?

Questions 80

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

microbiology chapter 11 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A stool sample from a patient with persistent diarrhea revealed cysts with four nuclei. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. This is because it is the only choice that matches the description of cysts with four nuclei, characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica. Entamoeba histolytica is a protozoan parasite that causes amoebiasis, leading to symptoms like persistent diarrhea. The other choices can be eliminated for the following reasons: B: Balantidium coli - It is a ciliated protozoan that causes dysentery in humans but does not produce cysts with four nuclei. C: Giardia lamblia - It is a flagellated protozoan that causes giardiasis, but it forms cysts with only two nuclei. D: Trichomonas hominis - It is a flagellated protozoan found in the human intestine, but it does not produce cysts with four nuclei. Therefore, based on the description of cysts with four nuclei in the stool sample,

Question 2 of 9

Binary fission is a form of reproduction used by

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Binary fission is a form of asexual reproduction where a single organism divides into two equal parts. Bacteria reproduce through binary fission, splitting into two identical daughter cells. Viruses are not considered living organisms and reproduce by infecting host cells. Fungi reproduce through spores or sexual reproduction. Helminths are parasitic worms that reproduce sexually. Therefore, the correct answer is B, bacteria, as they specifically utilize binary fission for reproduction.

Question 3 of 9

A patient with a severe sore throat had a throat smear revealing Gram-positive cocci in pairs with a capsule. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. The presence of Gram-positive cocci in pairs with a capsule is characteristic of Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is a common cause of bacterial pharyngitis, leading to a severe sore throat. Staphylococcus aureus (B) does not typically present in pairs or have a capsule. Neisseria meningitidis (C) is a Gram-negative diplococcus, not a Gram-positive cocci. Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) is a Gram-negative bacillus, not a cocci. Thus, based on the characteristics described in the question, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely causative agent.

Question 4 of 9

During examination of a 3-month old infant a pediatrician revealed that the baby's oral mucosa and tongue were covered with a thick white deposit. In the material taken from the affected site a bacteriologist revealed the presence of yeast fungi giving the reasons for suspecting a fungal infection which occurs most often in children of this age, namely:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Candidiasis. In infants, a thick white deposit on the oral mucosa and tongue is indicative of oral thrush, which is caused by the yeast fungus Candida. Infants are particularly susceptible to Candidiasis due to their developing immune systems and use of antibiotics. Favus (B) is a chronic fungal infection of the scalp caused by Trichophyton schoenleinii, typically not seen in infants. Epidermophytosis (C) refers to superficial fungal infections of the skin caused by dermatophytes, not commonly found in the oral cavity of infants. Actinomycosis (D) is a bacterial infection caused by Actinomyces species, not a fungal infection.

Question 5 of 9

Which antibiotics against Parvovirus B19 can be found during the first 10-14 days of the infection:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: IgM. IgM antibodies are the first type of antibodies produced by the immune system in response to an acute infection, such as Parvovirus B19. During the first 10-14 days of the infection, IgM antibodies are usually detectable in the blood, indicating a recent or ongoing infection. IgG antibodies (choice A) are produced later in the immune response and indicate past infection or immunity. IgA (choice B) is more commonly associated with mucosal immunity and may not be as prominent in the early stages of systemic infections. IgD (choice C) is primarily found on the surface of B cells and is involved in B cell activation but is not typically used as a marker for acute infections like IgM.

Question 6 of 9

Anti-tetanus gamma globulin is produced by hyperimmunization of donors with tetanus anatoxin. What class of immunoglobulins prevails in this preparation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: IgG. Anti-tetanus gamma globulin is produced by hyperimmunization, leading to a high concentration of specific antibodies, predominantly IgG. IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood and provides long-term immunity against tetanus. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas, not in gamma globulin preparations. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is not the prevailing class in this preparation. IgE is associated with allergic reactions and parasitic infections, not with anti-tetanus immunity.

Question 7 of 9

The specific antidote to botulinum toxin is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: antitoxin. Antitoxin is the specific antidote to botulinum toxin as it helps neutralize the toxin in the body. Sodium bicarbonate (A) is used to treat acidosis, pralidoxime (C) is used for organophosphate poisoning, and naloxone (D) is used for opioid overdose. Antitoxin directly targets and counteracts the botulinum toxin, making it the appropriate antidote in cases of botulism.

Question 8 of 9

Fossils of prokaryotes go back __________ billion years.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 3.5 to 4.0 billion years. Prokaryotic fossils date back to around 3.5 to 4.0 billion years ago, based on scientific evidence. This timeframe aligns with the earliest known evidence of life on Earth. Choices A, C, and D have incorrect timelines that do not correspond to the established age range of prokaryotic fossils. Choice A is too broad and includes a range that extends beyond the known fossil record. Choices C and D have much younger timelines, which do not match the historical evidence of prokaryotic life dating back billions of years.

Question 9 of 9

Laboratory diagnosis of Rotavirus infection includes

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cell cultures. Rotavirus diagnosis involves detecting viral antigens in stool samples using cell cultures. Cell cultures allow for the replication of the virus, facilitating its identification. A: Egg inoculation and B: Sensitive laboratory animals are not commonly used for Rotavirus diagnosis due to ethical concerns and practical limitations. C: Ascoli test is used for detecting specific proteins in serum, not for Rotavirus detection in stool samples. In summary, cell cultures are the most appropriate method for laboratory diagnosis of Rotavirus infection due to their ability to support viral replication and antigen detection.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days