ATI RN
microbiology an introduction 12th edition test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A stool sample from a patient with chronic diarrhea revealed cysts with four nuclei. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. This is because it is a protozoan parasite known to cause amoebic dysentery, presenting with chronic diarrhea and cysts with four nuclei in the stool sample. Giardia lamblia (B) causes giardiasis with trophozoites and cysts with two nuclei. Balantidium coli (C) is a ciliated parasite causing dysentery with large trophozoites. Trichomonas hominis (D) is a non-pathogenic flagellate often found in the human intestine. Thus, based on the specific characteristics of the cysts and clinical presentation, Entamoeba histolytica is the most likely causative agent.
Question 2 of 9
The complex of all biological processes/mechanisms responsible for the state of steady internal, physical and chemical conditions in the living systems and defense against all foreign agents is knows as:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: homeostasis. Homeostasis refers to the process by which living organisms maintain a stable internal environment despite external changes. It involves various biological processes and mechanisms that regulate factors such as temperature, pH, and nutrient levels within narrow limits. This is crucial for the proper functioning of cells, tissues, and organs. Now, let's analyze the other choices: A: Infection - Infection refers to the invasion and multiplication of harmful microorganisms in the body, leading to illnesses. It is not the correct answer as it does not encompass the overall maintenance of internal conditions. C: Immunity - Immunity is the body's ability to resist and fight off infections. While immunity is related to defense against foreign agents, it does not fully capture the concept of maintaining internal stability. D: Commensalism - Commensalism is a type of symbiotic relationship between different species where one benefits without harming the other. It is not related to the overall regulation of
Question 3 of 9
The eukaryotes known for the presence of a macronucleus and a micronucleus are:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: protozoans. Protozoans are eukaryotic organisms that possess both a macronucleus, responsible for general cell functions, and a micronucleus, involved in genetic processes like reproduction. Algae (choice A) typically have a single nucleus, fungi (choice B) lack distinct macronucleus and micronucleus structures, and slime molds (choice D) do not have the same nucleus organization as protozoans. Thus, protozoans are the only group among the choices that exhibit the specific characteristics of having both a macronucleus and a micronucleus.
Question 4 of 9
The specific binding of HIV to the CD4 surface molecules of the target cells is brought about by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gp120. Gp120 is a glycoprotein on the surface of the HIV virus that specifically binds to the CD4 receptor on target cells. This binding is essential for the virus to enter the host cell and initiate the infection process. Gp41 is another glycoprotein on the virus that helps with membrane fusion, not binding to CD4. Gp32 and Gp55 are not involved in the specific binding of HIV to CD4 molecules. So, A is correct as it directly plays a key role in the initial attachment of HIV to target cells.
Question 5 of 9
Gram-negative, capsulated bacteria with capsule, lactose-positive colonies. Isolated for the first time in pneumonia, but have more important role in urinary infections, otitis, meningitides, sepsis, nosocomial infections:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Klebsiella pneumoniae. This bacterium is gram-negative, capsulated, and forms lactose-positive colonies. It was first isolated in pneumonia but is more commonly associated with urinary infections, otitis, meningitides, sepsis, and nosocomial infections. Klebsiella pneumoniae fits all the characteristics mentioned in the question, making it the correct choice. Incorrect choices: A: Staphylococcus aureus is gram-positive and does not have a capsule. C: Streptococcus pneumoniae is also gram-positive and does not fit the description given. D: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is an acid-fast bacterium associated with tuberculosis, but it is neither gram-negative nor lactose-positive.
Question 6 of 9
Which one is true about sexually transmitted infections?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a soft chancre is a type of sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Haemophilus ducreyi. It presents as a painless ulcer on the genitals. The other choices are incorrect. B is incorrect because STIs can enter the body through various routes, not only the urogenital tract mucosa. C is incorrect because immunity to syphilis is not lifelong; reinfection is possible. D is incorrect because STIs can occur in any country regardless of social status or hygiene levels.
Question 7 of 9
In the South and Central America there can be found a species of trypanosomes that is the causative agent of Chagas disease. What animal is the infection carrier specific to this disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Triatomine bug. Triatomine bugs, also known as "kissing bugs," are the specific carrier of the trypanosomes that cause Chagas disease. These bugs transmit the parasite through their feces, which contain the infectious forms of the trypanosomes. When the bug bites a human or animal, it defecates near the bite wound, allowing the parasites to enter the bloodstream through the broken skin. Mosquitoes (B) transmit diseases like malaria and dengue fever, not Chagas disease. Tsetse flies (C) are known for transmitting African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness), not Chagas disease. Cockroaches (D) are not known to transmit Chagas disease.
Question 8 of 9
In a bacteriological laboratory some bacterial smears had to be stained by Gram's method. For this purpose the following reagents were prepared: gentian violet, Lugol's solution, aqueous fuchsin solution. What other reagent is required?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 96% ethanol. In Gram's staining method, after applying gentian violet, Lugol's solution, and aqueous fuchsin, the next step is to use a decolorizing agent like 96% ethanol to wash away the excess stain from the Gram-negative bacteria. This step is crucial as it helps differentiate between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria based on their cell wall properties. The other choices are incorrect because sulfuric acid is not used in Gram's staining method, methylene blue is typically used in other staining techniques like the simple stain, and carbolic fuchsin is not a standard reagent in the Gram's staining process.
Question 9 of 9
Bacteria that have a single polar flagellum at one end are referred to as:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Monotrichous means having a single flagellum at one end. 2. The term "polar" indicates that the flagellum is located at one end of the bacterium. 3. Therefore, bacteria with a single polar flagellum are referred to as monotrichous. 4. Choice A is a typo, as it is the same as the correct answer B. Summary: - Choice A is a typo, as it duplicates the correct answer. - Choice C, amphitrichous, refers to bacteria with a flagellum at each end. - Choice D, peritrichous, describes bacteria with flagella distributed over the entire surface.