ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A staff development nurse is providing an inservice for other nurses to educate them about the Nursing Interventions Classification (NIC) system. During the inservice, which statement made by one of the nurses in the room requires the staff development nurse to clarify the information provided? “This system can help medical students determine the cost of the care they provide to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the Nursing Interventions Classification (NIC) system is not designed to help medical students determine the cost of care. The NIC system focuses on standardizing and categorizing nursing interventions to improve communication, documentation, and patient care. Choice B is incorrect because it correctly identifies one of the benefits of using the NIC system - enhancing communication among nurses. Choice C is incorrect because it suggests a valid use of the NIC system for organizing orientation and explaining nursing interventions. Choice D is incorrect because it accurately states that the NIC system can improve documentation in the electronic health record, which is one of its purposes.
Question 2 of 9
Hemodynamic monitoring by means of a multilumen pulmonary artery catheter can provide detailed information about:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a multilumen pulmonary artery catheter can provide detailed information about preload, afterload, and cardiac output. Preload refers to the volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole, afterload is the resistance the heart has to overcome to eject blood, and cardiac output is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute. This catheter allows for direct measurement of these parameters by monitoring pressures in the pulmonary artery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually as they do not encompass the full range of information that can be obtained with a multilumen pulmonary artery catheter.
Question 3 of 9
A patient exhibits the following symptoms: tachycardia, increased thirst, headache, decreased urine output, and increased body temperature. The nurse analyzes the data. Which nursing diagnosis will the nurse assign to the patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis is C: Deficient fluid volume. The patient's symptoms indicate dehydration, as evidenced by tachycardia, increased thirst, decreased urine output, and increased body temperature. This points to a lack of fluid in the body. Option A, adult failure to thrive, does not address the immediate issue of fluid volume. Option B, hypothermia, is incorrect as the patient has an increased body temperature. Option D, nausea, is not a primary issue compared to the symptoms indicating dehydration. Therefore, the correct nursing diagnosis is C: Deficient fluid volume.
Question 4 of 9
What discharge teaching is most important to help the patient who has had a splenectomy prevent infection?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Receive vaccines against infection. Following a splenectomy, the patient is at an increased risk of infection due to the absence of the spleen's immune function. Vaccines help boost the body's immunity against specific pathogens, reducing the risk of infections. This is crucial for preventing post-splenectomy infections. Now, let's analyze the other choices: A: Avoid showering for 1 week - There is no evidence to support that avoiding showering would prevent infection after a splenectomy. B: Sleep in a semi-fowler’s position - Positioning does not directly impact infection prevention post-splenectomy. D: Stay on antibiotics for life - Long-term antibiotic use can lead to antibiotic resistance and is not recommended unless specifically indicated for a different reason.
Question 5 of 9
Usually, how does the patient behave after his seizure has subsided?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sleeps for a period of time. After a seizure, the brain and body experience fatigue and exhaustion. It is common for the patient to feel drowsy and require rest to recover. This post-ictal state is characterized by sleepiness and confusion. The other choices are incorrect because typically, after a seizure, the patient is not most comfortable walking and moving about (A), does not become restless and agitated (C), and may not immediately express thirst and hunger (D). It is important to ensure the patient is in a safe environment and allow them to rest after a seizure episode.
Question 6 of 9
A client who reports increasing difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and fatigue is diagnosed with esophageal cancer. Because this client has difficulty swallowing, the nurse should assign highest priority to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maintaining a patent airway. This is the highest priority because the client with esophageal cancer is at risk for airway obstruction due to difficulty swallowing. Maintaining a patent airway ensures adequate oxygenation and ventilation, which are vital for the client's survival. Without a clear airway, the client may experience respiratory distress or failure. Body image, preventing injury, and ensuring adequate nutrition are important aspects of care but do not take precedence over maintaining a patent airway in this situation.
Question 7 of 9
A home care nurse is assessing a client who is taking prazosin (Minipress). Which statement by the client would support the nursing diagnosis of noncompliance with medication therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Identify the correct answer - C: “I feel dizzy, I’ll skip my dose for a few days.” Step 2: Explanation - This statement indicates that the client is experiencing a known side effect of prazosin (dizziness) and plans to stop the medication temporarily without consulting the healthcare provider, showing noncompliance. Step 3: Supporting details - Skipping doses can lead to ineffective treatment and potential health risks. Step 4: Comparison with other choices: A: This statement shows the client questioning the need for medication but does not indicate current noncompliance. B: This statement demonstrates difficulty reading labels but does not directly relate to medication compliance. D: This statement shows awareness about medication interactions but does not indicate noncompliance with the prescribed medication regimen. Summary: Choice C is correct as it directly reflects noncompliance by planning to skip doses without consulting the healthcare provider, leading to potential adverse outcomes. Choices A, B, and D do not demonstrate the
Question 8 of 9
When teaching a client about insulin therapy, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid which over-the- counter preparation that can interact with insulin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Salicylate preparations. Salicylate can potentiate the effects of insulin, leading to hypoglycemia. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid this over-the-counter preparation when on insulin therapy. Antacids (A), vitamins with iron (B), and acetaminophen preparations (C) do not typically interact with insulin in a significant way.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the ff should the nurse identify as the earliest symptom of heart failure in many older clients?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspnea on exertion. In older clients, dyspnea on exertion is often the earliest symptom of heart failure due to decreased cardiac reserve. This occurs when the heart cannot pump enough blood to meet the body's demands during physical activity. Increased urine output (A) is not typically an early symptom of heart failure. Swollen joints (C) are more indicative of arthritis or inflammation, not necessarily heart failure. Nausea and vomiting (D) are not typical early symptoms of heart failure and are more commonly associated with gastrointestinal issues.