A smear of sputum from the patient with suspected lobar pneumonia was stained with the use of the following stains and reagents: solution of gentian violet, Lugol’s solution, 960 alcohol, watermagenta. What staining method was applied in this case?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gram staining method. The rationale is as follows: 1. Gentian violet is a primary stain used in the Gram staining procedure to stain the bacterial cells. 2. Lugol's solution is a mordant that helps to fix the crystal violet stain in Gram-positive bacteria. 3. 95% alcohol is used as a decolorizing agent in the Gram staining process to remove the stain from Gram-negative bacteria. 4. Watermagenta is not a standard reagent in the Gram staining method. Therefore, based on the reagents mentioned, the staining method applied in this case is the Gram staining method. Other choices are incorrect: B: Ziehl-Nielsen's - This staining method is used for acid-fast staining, not for lobar pneumonia. C: Romanovsky - This staining method is used for blood smears, not for bacterial staining in pneumonia. D: Neisser - This staining method is not commonly used in routine bacterial staining procedures.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Sepsis is a systemic response to infection resulting in organ dysfunction. A: Sepsis can be caused by bacterial infection, but it is not solely defined by the presence of bacteria in the blood. B: Bacteremia is the presence of bacteria in the blood, which can be a component of sepsis, but sepsis involves a broader systemic response beyond just bacteremia. C: Sepsis can lead to the release of toxins and organ failure, but sepsis itself is not defined solely by the massive proliferation of toxins. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as sepsis can involve the presence of bacteria, bacteremia, systemic manifestations, and organ failure.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: thimerosal. Thimerosal is a mercury-containing compound used as a preservative in vaccines. It helps prevent contamination and growth of bacteria and fungi in multi-dose vials. Choice A, analgesic, refers to pain relievers, not preservatives. Choice B, EDTA, is a chelating agent used to bind metal ions and is not a preservative. Choice C, codeine, is an opioid pain medication and not a preservative used in vaccines. Thimerosal is the correct answer as it specifically fits the description of a mercury-containing compound used in vaccines.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus influenzae are all common causes of bacterial meningitis. Neisseria meningitidis is often associated with outbreaks in community settings. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a leading cause of bacterial meningitis in adults. Haemophilus influenzae used to be a common cause in children before the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Therefore, since all three bacteria are known to cause bacterial meningitis, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each bacteria individually can cause bacterial meningitis, making "All of the above" the correct comprehensive answer.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, as all options A, B, and C are determinants of antigenicity. A: Chemical nature influences how the immune system recognizes antigens. B: The size of the antigen affects its ability to be recognized by immune cells. C: Antigens of foreign origin are more likely to trigger an immune response. Therefore, all of these factors together play a crucial role in determining antigenicity.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Yersinia enterocolitica. Y. enterocolitica is known to cause gastroenteritis and diarrhea in humans. It is often associated with contaminated food or water. Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough, not diarrhea. Corynebacterium diphtheria causes respiratory diphtheria. Neisseria meningitidis is associated with meningitis and septicemia, not diarrhea. Therefore, based on the patient's symptoms and history, Y. enterocolitica is the most likely cause of the diarrhea in this case.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Helicobacter pylori. Group I organisms are classified based on their low infectious doses and potential for bioterrorism. H. pylori is known to cause gastric ulcers and is categorized as a Group I organism due to its ability to cause disease at low doses. A: Francisella tularensis is a Group A bioterrorism agent, not Group I. B: Clostridium difficile is not typically classified as a Group I organism. D: Bacillus anthracis is a Group A bioterrorism agent, not Group I.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Gram-positive cocci in clusters suggest Staphylococcus or Streptococcus. 2. Catalase-positive and coagulase-positive narrow it down to Staphylococcus. 3. Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. Therefore, the likely causative agent is Staphylococcus aureus. Summary: A: Correct - Staphylococcus aureus fits all the characteristics. B: Incorrect - Staphylococcus epidermidis is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative. C: Incorrect - Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative. D: Incorrect - Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: phialospores. Phialospores are conidiospores that bud off from a vase-shaped spore-bearing cell called a phialide. This structure is characteristic of fungi in the genus Penicillium. Arthrospores (A) are formed by the fragmentation of hyphae, porospores (B) are not a recognized term in mycology, and blastospores (D) are produced by budding from yeast cells. Therefore, C is the correct choice based on the specific description provided in the question.