A smear of sputum from the patient with suspected lobar pneumonia was stained with the use of the following stains and reagents: solution of gentian violet, Lugol’s solution, 960 alcohol, watermagenta. What staining method was applied in this case?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gram staining method. The rationale is as follows: 1. Gentian violet is a primary stain used in the Gram staining procedure to stain the bacterial cells. 2. Lugol's solution is a mordant that helps to fix the crystal violet stain in Gram-positive bacteria. 3. 95% alcohol is used as a decolorizing agent in the Gram staining process to remove the stain from Gram-negative bacteria. 4. Watermagenta is not a standard reagent in the Gram staining method. Therefore, based on the reagents mentioned, the staining method applied in this case is the Gram staining method. Other choices are incorrect: B: Ziehl-Nielsen's - This staining method is used for acid-fast staining, not for lobar pneumonia. C: Romanovsky - This staining method is used for blood smears, not for bacterial staining in pneumonia. D: Neisser - This staining method is not commonly used in routine bacterial staining procedures.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: A: Incorrect - The complement system is not directly involved in the viral neutralization reaction. B: Correct - Specific antibodies neutralize viruses by blocking their ability to infect cells. C: Incorrect - Antibodies are titrated, but only one serum sample is required for neutralization testing. D: Incorrect - Viral neutralization is primarily used to measure antibody response, not to identify newly isolated viruses.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacillus anthracis. This bacterium is known to form highly resistant spores that can survive for long periods in soil. Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, a dangerous disease that can be transmitted to humans and animals. The other choices, Francisella tularensis, Brucella abortus, and Yersinia pestis, do not form spores as resistant as Bacillus anthracis. Therefore, only Bacillus anthracis is likely to have survived in the soil of the old burial ground for animal refuse for over 50 years.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. E. coli typically produces red colonies on Endo agar due to its ability to ferment lactose. This results in the production of acid, causing the colonies to appear red. Salmonella and Shigella are non-lactose fermenters, so they would appear colorless or transparent on Endo agar. Proteus vulgaris is not commonly associated with red colonies on Endo agar. Therefore, based on the characteristic lactose fermentation pattern, E. coli is the most likely microorganism in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci that is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive, making it the most likely causative agent for the wound infection. Catalase-positive bacteria produce the enzyme catalase, which helps break down hydrogen peroxide. Coagulase-positive bacteria produce the enzyme coagulase, which causes the plasma proteins to clot. Staphylococcus epidermidis is catalase-positive but coagulase-negative, making it less likely to cause a wound infection. Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative, and Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative, so they are less likely to be the causative agent.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Interferon is a cell-specific protein that is produced and released from infected cells in response to viral infections. It acts extracellularly to interfere with viral replication, not to inactivate the virus itself. Interferon is not coded for by cellular DNA, but by viral RNA during infection. Therefore, the correct answer, D, is that interferon is not virus-specific but is cell-specific. This is because interferon can be produced by various cell types in response to different types of viral infections, making it a broad-spectrum antiviral defense mechanism.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C (100°C) because the Koch apparatus is used for sterilization, and the standard temperature for sterilization is 100°C. At this temperature, most microorganisms are killed, making it an effective method for sterilization. Choice A (90°C), B (95°C), and D (110°C) are incorrect because they are not commonly used temperatures for sterilization purposes. Choosing a temperature lower than 100°C may not effectively kill all microorganisms, while choosing a temperature higher than 100°C may lead to unnecessary energy consumption without providing additional sterilization benefits.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: placenta. The placenta is a highly specialized structure that forms during pregnancy and serves as a barrier, protecting the fetus from harmful microorganisms that could potentially harm the developing baby. It facilitates the exchange of nutrients, oxygen, and waste between the mother and fetus while preventing the passage of most bacteria and viruses. The uterus (A) is the organ where the fetus develops, but it does not have the specific protective functions of the placenta. The vagina (C) is the birth canal and does not provide protection from microorganisms for the fetus. The mammary gland (D) is responsible for producing milk after birth and is not directly involved in protecting the fetus from microorganisms during pregnancy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Helicobacter pylori. Group I organisms are classified based on their low infectious doses and potential for bioterrorism. H. pylori is known to cause gastric ulcers and is categorized as a Group I organism due to its ability to cause disease at low doses. A: Francisella tularensis is a Group A bioterrorism agent, not Group I. B: Clostridium difficile is not typically classified as a Group I organism. D: Bacillus anthracis is a Group A bioterrorism agent, not Group I.