A smear of pus from an abscess revealed Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The culture was catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. What microorganism was isolated?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. This bacterium is Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase-positive, and coagulase-positive. Staphylococcus aureus is a common pathogen causing abscesses. Streptococcus pyogenes (B) is Gram-positive cocci in chains, not clusters. Micrococcus luteus (C) is catalase-positive but coagulase-negative. Enterococcus faecalis (D) is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fecal enterococcus. In a drugstore setting, finding a fecal-indicative microorganism like fecal enterococcus indicates a potential contamination from fecal matter, which poses a significant health risk. Staphylococcus aureus (Choice A) and α-haemolytic streptococcus (Choice D) are not typically indicative of fecal contamination. Colon bacillus (Choice B) is a common bacterium found in the gut but is not specifically indicative of fecal contamination. Therefore, choice C, fecal enterococcus, is the most appropriate microorganism indicating unsanitary conditions in a drugstore.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bordetella pertussis. This bacterium causes whooping cough by infecting the respiratory tract. It produces toxins that lead to severe coughing fits characteristic of the disease. Clostridium botulinum (A) causes botulism, Streptococcus pneumoniae (C) causes pneumonia, and Neisseria meningitidis (D) causes meningitis, not whooping cough. B. pertussis is the only bacterium specifically associated with whooping cough.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because virulence refers to the degree of pathogenicity of a microorganism, which can vary and is not a constant characteristic. It can be measured using LD50, which is the lethal dose that kills 50% of the test population. Therefore, all the statements in options A, B, and C are true and collectively provide a comprehensive understanding of virulence.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a viral capsid is a protein coat that surrounds and protects the viral nucleic acid (DNA or RNA). It helps in the attachment of the virus to host cells and protects the genetic material during transmission. Choice A is incorrect because a viral capsid is composed of proteins, not an envelope. Choice C is incorrect because not all viruses have an outer membrane. Choice D is incorrect because a viral capsid is primarily made up of proteins, not lipids.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: it is a live attenuated vaccine. This is true because the mumps vaccine is indeed a live attenuated vaccine, meaning it contains a weakened form of the virus to stimulate an immune response without causing the disease. This type of vaccine provides long-lasting immunity. A, B, and C are incorrect: A: the vaccine is recommended, not obligatory - this is incorrect because the mumps vaccine is typically recommended for all individuals to prevent the spread of the disease. B: the vaccine is not given in combination with other vaccines - this is incorrect as the mumps vaccine is often given in combination with measles and rubella vaccines as the MMR vaccine. C: the vaccine is administered orally - this is incorrect because the mumps vaccine is usually administered via injection, not orally.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Clindamycin. Clindamycin is a lincosamide antibiotic that is safe to use in patients with a history of anaphylaxis to beta-lactam antibiotics like cefaclor. Clindamycin is effective against streptococcus pyogenes and is a suitable alternative in this case. Amoxicillin (choice A) is a beta-lactam antibiotic similar to cefaclor and may cause a cross-reactive allergic reaction. Meropenem (choice B) is a carbapenem antibiotic and not typically used for acute pharyngitis. Cephalexin (choice C) is a cephalosporin antibiotic and may also cause cross-reactivity in patients with a history of anaphylaxis to cefaclor.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction. In this type of reaction, allergens trigger the production of IgE antibodies, leading to mast cell and basophil degranulation and release of inflammatory mediators like histamine. This causes immediate allergic symptoms. Seafood and eggs are common allergens that can elicit this response. B: Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction involves antibodies targeting cell surface or extracellular matrix antigens, leading to cell destruction or dysfunction. This is not the mechanism in seafood or egg allergies. C: Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction involves immune complex deposition in tissues, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. This is not the mechanism in seafood or egg allergies. D: Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction is cell-mediated and involves T cells causing inflammation and tissue damage. This is not the mechanism in seafood or egg allergies.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. This bacterium is a Gram-negative diplococcus commonly associated with meningitis. Neisseria meningitidis is a leading cause of bacterial meningitis in young adults and adolescents. It is known for causing fever, headache, and neck stiffness. The other choices, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Klebsiella pneumoniae, are not typically Gram-negative diplococci and are not commonly associated with the symptoms described. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a Gram-positive coccus, Haemophilus influenzae is a Gram-negative coccobacillus, and Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative rod. Therefore, Neisseria meningitidis is the most likely causative agent in this scenario.