ATI RN
microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A smear of dental plaque revealed unicellular organisms with pseudopodia and ingested white blood cells. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba gingivalis. This organism matches the description provided in the question - unicellular with pseudopodia and ingested white blood cells, commonly found in dental plaque. Entamoeba gingivalis is known to inhabit the oral cavity and is associated with periodontal disease. Trichomonas vaginalis, Giardia lamblia, and Balantidium coli do not match the characteristics mentioned in the question and are not typically found in the oral cavity.
Question 2 of 9
Tularemia is also referred to as:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: rabbit fever. Tularemia is commonly known as rabbit fever due to the fact that it is often contracted through handling infected rabbits or other rodents. This zoonotic disease is caused by the bacterium Francisella tularensis. Scarlet fever (A) is a streptococcal infection characterized by a rash, not related to tularemia. Strep throat (B) is a bacterial infection caused by Streptococcus bacteria and is not associated with tularemia. Cat scratch fever (C) is caused by Bartonella henselae and typically transmitted through cat scratches or bites, not related to tularemia.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is responsible for causing botulism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Clostridium botulinum. This bacterium produces botulinum toxin, leading to botulism. It is commonly found in soil and improperly canned food. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, Staphylococcus aureus causes food poisoning, and Salmonella enterica causes salmonellosis. Therefore, A is correct due to its association with botulism, while the other choices are incorrect for causing different diseases.
Question 4 of 9
What comes after class in the classification system?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Phylum. After class in the classification system comes phylum. The classification system starts with the broadest category, which is the kingdom, followed by phylum, class, order, family, genus, and species. Phylum is a higher level of classification than class, so it comes next in the hierarchy. Domain is a higher level than kingdom, and order is a lower level of classification than class. Therefore, the correct sequence is kingdom, phylum, class, order.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following statements regarding the antigenic drift is NOT true
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because antigenic drift is not caused by the exchange of genetic information between animal and human influenza viruses. Antigenic drift is actually due to point mutations in the genes that encode for the surface proteins of the virus, leading to small changes in the antigens. These mutations can affect the hemagglutinin of both type A and B influenza viruses, making choices A and C correct. Choice D is incorrect because antigenic drift can occur in both type A and B influenza viruses, with type B being less prone to drift compared to type A.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following statements can be applied to Chlamydia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Gram-negative bacteria without peptidoglycan. Chlamydia is an intracellular, gram-negative bacteria that lacks peptidoglycan in its cell wall. Peptidoglycan is a key component of the cell wall in most bacteria, but Chlamydia has a unique structure without it. This makes it different from choices A, B, and C, which describe characteristics not applicable to Chlamydia. Choice A is incorrect because Chlamydia is not a gram-positive coccobacteria. Choice B is incorrect because Chlamydia does have a cell wall, albeit lacking peptidoglycan. Choice C is incorrect because Chlamydia is not a gram-negative bacteria with little peptidoglycan, but rather without it.
Question 7 of 9
The intracellular fluid has a high concentration of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Sodium is the major cation in the intracellular fluid. 2. It plays a crucial role in maintaining cell volume and transmitting nerve impulses. 3. Potassium is the major cation in the extracellular fluid, not intracellular. 4. Bicarbonate and sulfate are anions and not major cations in intracellular fluid. Summary: Choice B (sodium) is correct as it is the major cation in intracellular fluid, essential for various cellular functions. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as potassium is extracellular, while bicarbonate and sulfate are anions and not predominant cations in intracellular fluid.
Question 8 of 9
A Gram-negative, motile, comma-shaped bacterium was isolated from a stool sample of a patient with diarrhea. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Gram-negative, comma-shaped bacterium suggests a curved rod morphology, typical of Campylobacter jejuni. Step 2: Motility is a characteristic of Campylobacter species. Step 3: Campylobacter jejuni is a common cause of bacterial diarrhea in humans. Step 4: Vibrio cholerae causes cholera, not typically associated with comma-shaped morphology. Shigella dysenteriae and Escherichia coli are not comma-shaped.
Question 9 of 9
A patient was diagnosed with active focal pulmonary tuberculosis. What drug should be prescribed in the first place?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Isoniazid. Isoniazid is a first-line drug for treating active pulmonary tuberculosis due to its high efficacy and low toxicity. It works by inhibiting the synthesis of mycolic acids in the bacterial cell wall. Sulfalen, Cyclocerine, and Ethionamide are not first-line drugs for tuberculosis. Sulfalen is used for urinary tract infections, Cyclocerine for drug-resistant tuberculosis, and Ethionamide as a second-line drug for multidrug-resistant tuberculosis. Therefore, Isoniazid is the most appropriate initial choice for treating active focal pulmonary tuberculosis.