ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A seizure characterized by loss of consciousness and tonic spasms of the trunk and extremities rapidly followed by repetitive generalized clonic jerking is classified as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Generalized seizure. This type of seizure involves both hemispheres of the brain from the onset, leading to loss of consciousness and tonic-clonic jerking. It is characterized by widespread, synchronized electrical discharges. A: Focal seizures start in one area of the brain, leading to localized symptoms without loss of consciousness. B: Jacksonian seizures are a type of focal seizure characterized by a progression of jerking movements from one body part to another. D: Partial seizures involve only one part of the brain, leading to localized symptoms or altered consciousness without loss of awareness.
Question 2 of 9
A patient has orders to receive 1 L (1000 mL) of 5% dextrose and lactated Ringer’s solution to be infused over 8 hours. How many millilitres will be infused per hour?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 125 mL/h. To calculate the infusion rate per hour, we divide the total volume (1000 mL) by the total time in hours (8 hours). 1000 mL / 8 hours = 125 mL/h. This ensures a consistent and accurate infusion rate throughout the 8-hour period. Choice A (80 mL/h) is incorrect because it underestimates the infusion rate. Choice B (100 mL/h) is incorrect because it does not divide the total volume by the total time correctly. Choice D (150 mL/h) is incorrect because it overestimates the infusion rate.
Question 3 of 9
A client has undergone the Snellen eye chart test and has 20/40 vision. Which of the ff is true for this client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. In the Snellen eye chart test, the first number (20) represents the distance at which the client is viewing the chart, and the second number (40) represents the distance at which a person with normal vision can read the same line. Therefore, a client with 20/40 vision sees letters at 20 feet that others with normal vision can read at 40 feet. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the interpretation of the 20/40 vision result from the Snellen eye chart test. B is incorrect because the client does not see letters at 40 feet that others can read at 20 feet. Choices C and D are incorrect because the Snellen eye chart test measures visual acuity, not color perception.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is gathering data on a patient. Which data will the nurse report as objective data?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Objective data are measurable and observable facts obtained through physical examination or diagnostic tests. In this case, "Respirations 16" is a quantifiable and observable measurement, making it objective data. It is not influenced by personal interpretation or feelings. The other choices, such as "States 'doesn't feel good'", "Reports a headache", and "Nauseated" are subjective data because they are based on the patient's feelings or experiences, which can vary depending on individual perception and interpretation, making them less reliable for making clinical decisions. By focusing on objective data like "Respirations 16", the nurse can provide a more accurate assessment of the patient's condition.
Question 5 of 9
A client’s blood glucose levels remain elevated despite adherence to the prescribed treatment plan. What is the nurse’s best action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because reassessing the client's diet, medication, and lifestyle habits allows the nurse to identify any factors contributing to the elevated blood glucose levels. By identifying possible issues, the nurse can make necessary adjustments to the treatment plan to better manage the client's condition. Increasing medication dosage without understanding the root cause may lead to adverse effects. Simply documenting the elevated levels without taking proactive measures does not address the problem. Notifying the client's family is not the nurse's first action; the focus should be on assessing and addressing the client's needs.
Question 6 of 9
In a 28-year-old female client who is being successfully treated for Cushing syndrome, the nurse would expect a decline in:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: menstrual flow. In a 28-year-old female with Cushing syndrome, excess cortisol levels can disrupt the menstrual cycle, leading to irregular or absent periods. Successful treatment for Cushing syndrome aims to restore normal cortisol levels, which should result in the resumption of regular menstrual flow. This indicates that the hormonal balance is improving. Now, let's analyze the other choices: A: Serum glucose level - While Cushing syndrome can lead to hyperglycemia, successful treatment would aim to normalize glucose levels, not cause a decline. B: Bone mineralization - Cushing syndrome can cause osteoporosis due to loss of bone density, but successful treatment would help prevent further bone loss rather than decline. C: Hair loss - Cushing syndrome can cause hair loss, but successful treatment would not necessarily lead to a decline in hair loss as it may take time for hair to regrow. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it directly relates to the restoration of hormonal
Question 7 of 9
The spouse of a client with gastric cancer expresses concern that the couple’s children may develop this type of cancer when they’re older. When reviewing risk factors for gastric cancer with the client and family, the nurse explains that a certain blood type increases the risk by 10%. The nurse is referring to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Type A blood has been associated with a slightly higher risk of developing gastric cancer compared to other blood types. Step 2: The nurse mentioned a 10% increase in risk, which aligns with the increased risk associated with Type A blood. Step 3: Type AB and Type B blood do not have the same increased risk for gastric cancer as Type A blood. Step 4: Type O blood is actually associated with a lower risk of gastric cancer compared to Type A blood. Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is A: Type A blood.
Question 8 of 9
Mrs. Zeno asks the nurse why the disease has occurred. The nurse bases the reply on the knowledge that there is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a decreased number of functioning acetylcholine receptor sites would result in the disease. Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that transmits signals between nerves and muscles. If there are fewer receptor sites for acetylcholine to bind to, this can lead to impaired nerve-muscle communication, causing the disease. Choice A is incorrect because a genetic defect in acetylcholine production would not directly affect the receptor sites. Choice B is incorrect because a reduced amount of acetylcholine would still be able to bind to the available receptor sites. Choice D is incorrect because inhibiting the enzyme Ache would not directly impact the receptor sites.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the ff is a critical task of a nurse during the uterosigmoidostomy procedure for treating a malignant tumor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inspecting for bleeding or cyanosis. During uterosigmoidostomy, the nurse's critical task is to monitor for any signs of bleeding or cyanosis, which are indicators of potential complications such as hemorrhage or impaired blood flow. This involves observing the surgical site for any abnormal bleeding and assessing the skin color for signs of inadequate oxygenation. Inspecting for symptoms of peritonitis (B) is not directly related to this surgical procedure. Assessing the client's allergy to iodine (C) is important but not a critical task during the procedure. Checking for signs of electrolyte losses (D) is important but not as critical as monitoring for immediate postoperative complications like bleeding or cyanosis.