ATI RN
ATI Proctored Leadership Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A resident on night call refuses to answer pages from the staff nurse on the night shift and complains that she calls too often with minor problems. The nurse feels offended and reacts with frequent, middle-of-the-night phone calls to 'get back' at him. The behavior displayed by the resident and the nurse is an example of what kind of conflict?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Disruptive conflict. This type of conflict occurs when there is a lack of cooperation and communication between parties, leading to negative interactions. In this scenario, the resident and nurse are engaging in retaliatory behavior, causing disruption in their professional relationship. The resident's refusal to answer pages and the nurse's excessive phone calls are escalating the conflict, impacting their ability to work effectively as a team. A: Perceived conflict refers to misunderstandings or misinterpretations of others' actions. In this case, the conflict is real and evident. C: Competitive conflict involves a desire to win or outperform others. While there may be some competitiveness in their actions, the main issue is the disruptive nature of their conflict. D: Felt conflict describes emotional responses to conflict situations. While emotions are likely present in this scenario, the key aspect is the disruptive nature of their behavior.
Question 2 of 9
When in opposition to an immediate superior, a nurse manager should use which important strategy in a confrontation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Using 'I' language. This strategy is effective in confrontation as it focuses on expressing one's own thoughts and feelings without blaming the other person. By using "I" language, the nurse manager can communicate assertively and take ownership of their perspective, which can lead to a more constructive dialogue. Summary: B: Using absolutes can come across as rigid and may escalate the confrontation. C: Using 'why' questions can be perceived as accusatory and defensive, potentially leading to further conflict. D: Using negative assertions can create a hostile environment and hinder effective communication.
Question 3 of 9
Verbal interventions with an agitated patient may be calming. These interventions include:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because remaining calm and keeping an arm's distance is crucial when dealing with an agitated patient. This approach helps prevent escalating the situation and promotes a sense of safety. Holding and reassuring the patient (A) can be perceived as intrusive and may escalate the agitation. Encouraging other staff to distract the patient (B) can also be counterproductive as it may increase the patient's distress. Standing close to the patient while talking (D) can be perceived as threatening and may escalate the situation further. Thus, maintaining calm and keeping a safe distance is the most effective verbal intervention strategy.
Question 4 of 9
After the nurse has finished teaching a patient who has a new prescription for exenatide (Byetta), which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. This statement indicates effective teaching because taking aspirin at least an hour before exenatide (Byetta) helps prevent any potential interactions between the two medications. By understanding the importance of timing, the patient shows comprehension of medication management and potential risks. Incorrect choices: A: This choice is incorrect because exenatide is known to reduce appetite, not increase hunger. B: This choice is incorrect because hypoglycemia is still a risk with exenatide, especially if used with other medications that lower blood sugar. D: This choice is incorrect because exenatide is injected, not taken as a pill, and should be taken before meals, not with breakfast.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following is one important factor in sustaining employee satisfaction?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Job satisfaction. Job satisfaction is crucial in sustaining employee satisfaction as it directly impacts how content and fulfilled employees feel in their roles. When employees are satisfied with their jobs, they are more likely to be engaged, motivated, and productive. This leads to higher retention rates and overall better performance. On the other hand, organization culture (A) is important but not the sole factor in sustaining employee satisfaction. Individual performance (B) and performance evaluation (C) are more related to assessing employee output rather than directly impacting their satisfaction levels.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following strategies is most effective for improving staff morale?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Providing feedback. Feedback is essential for staff morale as it communicates appreciation, areas for improvement, and fosters a sense of engagement. It allows employees to understand their performance, feel valued, and motivated to improve. Increasing workload (A) can lead to burnout and decreased morale. While increasing salaries (B) can boost morale, it may not address underlying issues. Offering incentives (D) can be effective, but they are short-term solutions and may not address intrinsic motivation or long-term morale. Feedback, on the other hand, provides ongoing support and guidance to employees, making it the most effective strategy for improving staff morale.
Question 7 of 9
One of the critical elements in interviewing is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Developing an interview guide. This is critical because it helps structure the interview, ensuring all relevant topics are covered and consistency in questioning. It helps the interviewer stay focused and gather necessary information effectively. A: Time management is important but not a critical element. B: Involving others can be beneficial but not essential. C: Choosing the location is important for comfort but not as critical as having a structured guide.
Question 8 of 9
A resident on night call refuses to answer pages from the staff nurse on the night shift and complains that she calls too often with minor problems. The nurse feels offended and reacts with frequent, middle-of-the-night phone calls to 'get back' at him. The behavior displayed by the resident and the nurse is an example of what kind of conflict?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Disruptive conflict. This type of conflict occurs when there is a lack of cooperation and communication between parties, leading to negative interactions. In this scenario, the resident and nurse are engaging in retaliatory behavior, causing disruption in their professional relationship. The resident's refusal to answer pages and the nurse's excessive phone calls are escalating the conflict, impacting their ability to work effectively as a team. A: Perceived conflict refers to misunderstandings or misinterpretations of others' actions. In this case, the conflict is real and evident. C: Competitive conflict involves a desire to win or outperform others. While there may be some competitiveness in their actions, the main issue is the disruptive nature of their conflict. D: Felt conflict describes emotional responses to conflict situations. While emotions are likely present in this scenario, the key aspect is the disruptive nature of their behavior.
Question 9 of 9
A recent nursing school graduate is preparing to take the NCLEX. The graduate knows which of the following is true?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: The correct answer is C because the nurse can practice in other compact states if her home state participates in the compact agreement. Step 2: The Nurse Licensure Compact (NLC) allows nurses to practice in other compact states with one multistate license. Step 3: Nurses must maintain an active license in their home state and follow the regulations of the compact agreement. Step 4: Answer A is incorrect as graduates can use the title RN upon passing the NCLEX. Step 5: Answer B is incorrect as the nurse must meet each state's requirements to practice there with the compact license. Step 6: Answer D is incorrect as the RN license is not mandatory if the nurse does not intend to practice.