ATI RN
ATI Proctored Leadership Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A resident on night call refuses to answer pages from the staff nurse on the night shift and complains that she calls too often with minor problems. The nurse feels offended and reacts with frequent, middle-of-the-night phone calls to 'get back' at him. The behavior displayed by the resident and the nurse is an example of what kind of conflict?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Disruptive conflict. This type of conflict occurs when there is a lack of cooperation and communication between parties, leading to negative interactions. In this scenario, the resident and nurse are engaging in retaliatory behavior, causing disruption in their professional relationship. The resident's refusal to answer pages and the nurse's excessive phone calls are escalating the conflict, impacting their ability to work effectively as a team. A: Perceived conflict refers to misunderstandings or misinterpretations of others' actions. In this case, the conflict is real and evident. C: Competitive conflict involves a desire to win or outperform others. While there may be some competitiveness in their actions, the main issue is the disruptive nature of their conflict. D: Felt conflict describes emotional responses to conflict situations. While emotions are likely present in this scenario, the key aspect is the disruptive nature of their behavior.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following types of leadership behaviors would be most useful when managing a staff of newly trained CNAs (Certified Nursing Assistants)?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Directive. In managing newly trained CNAs, directive leadership is most useful as it provides clear instructions and guidance for the inexperienced staff. This helps ensure they understand expectations and tasks. Achievement-oriented leadership (A) may be overwhelming for new staff, supportive leadership (B) may not provide enough structure, and participative leadership (C) may be confusing for staff who require clear direction and guidance. Ultimately, directive leadership is the most appropriate for managing newly trained CNAs due to the need for clear instructions and structure.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following may be considered an absenteeism management strategy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reducing job stress. This is an absenteeism management strategy because high job stress can lead to increased absenteeism. By reducing stress through various methods such as workload management, providing support, and promoting work-life balance, organizations can effectively reduce absenteeism rates. Holding regular meetings (A) is important for communication but not a direct absenteeism strategy. Limiting career growth opportunities (B) may actually increase absenteeism due to lack of motivation. Neglecting the issue (D) will only worsen absenteeism rates.
Question 4 of 9
A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a sodium level of 125 mEq/L (136 to 145 mEq/L). Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Abdominal cramping. A sodium level of 125 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which can lead to abdominal cramping due to electrolyte imbalance affecting muscle function. Chvostek's sign (choice A) is associated with hypocalcemia, not hyponatremia. Bradycardia (choice B) is more commonly seen in hyperkalemia. Numbness of the extremities (choice C) is a symptom of hypocalcemia or peripheral neuropathy, not specifically related to hyponatremia. In summary, the healthcare professional should expect abdominal cramping as a result of the low sodium level in this client.
Question 5 of 9
The time period to give as notice for an appraisal is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Two days. The Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP) requires a minimum of two days' notice for an appraisal. This time frame allows the appraiser to adequately prepare for the appraisal assignment, gather necessary information, and schedule the inspection. Choice A is incorrect as one day is not sufficient time for proper preparation. Choice B is incorrect as no notice is not in compliance with USPAP standards. Choice C is incorrect as one week exceeds the minimum requirement of two days.
Question 6 of 9
After the nurse has finished teaching a patient who has a new prescription for exenatide (Byetta), which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. This statement indicates effective teaching because taking aspirin at least an hour before exenatide (Byetta) helps prevent any potential interactions between the two medications. By understanding the importance of timing, the patient shows comprehension of medication management and potential risks. Incorrect choices: A: This choice is incorrect because exenatide is known to reduce appetite, not increase hunger. B: This choice is incorrect because hypoglycemia is still a risk with exenatide, especially if used with other medications that lower blood sugar. D: This choice is incorrect because exenatide is injected, not taken as a pill, and should be taken before meals, not with breakfast.
Question 7 of 9
A client is having difficulty breathing while receiving supplemental oxygen via a nasal cannula in a supine position. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assist the client to an upright position. This is the priority intervention because placing the client in an upright position helps improve lung expansion and oxygenation by optimizing ventilation-perfusion matching. This position also reduces the risk of aspiration and improves overall respiratory function. Choice A (Suction the client's airway) is not the first intervention because difficulty breathing in this scenario is more likely due to positioning rather than airway obstruction. Choice B (Instruct the client to perform incentive spirometry every hour) is not the first intervention as it may not address the immediate issue of breathing difficulty related to supine positioning. Choice D (Humidify the client's supplemental oxygen) is not the first intervention as lack of humidification is not likely the cause of the client's difficulty breathing in this situation.
Question 8 of 9
When planning a budget, the nurse manager knows that costs depend on and change in direct proportion to patient volume and activity. What type of costs are these?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Variable costs. Variable costs are costs that change in direct proportion to the level of activity or volume. In this scenario, as patient volume and activity increase or decrease, the costs will fluctuate accordingly. Indirect costs (B) are not directly tied to patient volume. Fixed costs (C) remain constant regardless of patient volume. Direct costs (D) are specific to the production of a good or service and are not necessarily impacted by patient volume.
Question 9 of 9
What is a potential benefit of social media?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Connecting with the public to encourage healthy behaviors. Social media can be used as a powerful tool to reach a large audience and promote positive health behaviors and choices. By engaging with the public through social media platforms, healthcare professionals can share valuable information, tips, and resources to encourage healthier lifestyles. This can lead to increased awareness, education, and motivation for individuals to make healthier choices. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they may have some benefits, they do not directly address the potential benefit of using social media to encourage healthy behaviors in the general public.