ATI RN
Pharmacology Across the Lifespan Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A researcher is creating a novel medication to act at M₁ receptors. This agent will likely have which of the following augmentative effects on target organs?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In pharmacology, understanding the mechanism of action of drugs on specific receptors is crucial. In this case, focusing on the M₁ receptors targeted by the novel medication is key to determining its effects on target organs. The correct answer is D) Gastric acid secretion. M₁ receptors are predominantly located in the parietal cells of the stomach lining, where they play a significant role in stimulating gastric acid secretion. Therefore, an agent acting at M₁ receptors is likely to augment gastric acid secretion. Option A) Cardiac muscle contractility is incorrect because M₁ receptors are not primarily involved in regulating cardiac function. Options B) Constipation and C) Diarrhea are also incorrect as they are more commonly associated with other receptor types or mechanisms, not M₁ receptors. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of understanding receptor specificity and the potential effects of drugs on different organ systems. It reinforces the need for precise drug targeting to achieve desired therapeutic outcomes while minimizing unwanted side effects. Students benefit from grasping these concepts to make informed decisions in pharmacotherapy.
Question 2 of 5
A 45-year-old man with a history of depression presents to the emergency department with priapism. He has had an erection for the past 2 h, and it is extremely painful. He is given pseudoephedrine and the erection subsides. What medication is the most likely cause of his priapism?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Trazodone. Trazodone is an antidepressant known to be associated with priapism, a rare but serious side effect. Priapism is characterized by a prolonged and painful erection unrelated to sexual stimulation. Trazodone, a serotonin modulator and stimulator, has been linked to this adverse effect due to its alpha-adrenergic blocking properties, which can lead to impaired regulation of blood flow in the penis. Option A) Bupropion is unlikely to cause priapism as it works through a different mechanism of action compared to trazodone. Bupropion is a norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor and does not typically lead to priapism. Option B) Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), is also an unlikely cause of priapism in this case. SSRIs are not commonly associated with priapism and are generally considered safer in terms of sexual side effects compared to trazodone. Option C) Maprotiline is a tetracyclic antidepressant with noradrenergic effects. While priapism is a potential side effect of maprotiline, it is less common than with trazodone. Educationally, understanding the side effect profiles of different antidepressants is crucial for healthcare providers to make informed decisions when prescribing medications, especially in patients with underlying conditions like depression. Recognizing the association between trazodone and priapism can help prevent and manage this serious adverse event promptly.
Question 3 of 5
A 34-year-old woman with long-standing hypertension is taking an ACE inhibitor. She is now newly married. Which of the following potential adverse effects is most applicable to her at this time?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is D) Toxicity to fetus. When a woman is taking an ACE inhibitor, such as in the case of long-standing hypertension, it is crucial to understand that ACE inhibitors are contraindicated during pregnancy due to the risk of fetal toxicity. ACE inhibitors can cause serious harm to the developing fetus, especially during the second and third trimesters, leading to renal dysfunction, hypotension, and even death in the fetus. Option A) Angioedema is a potential adverse effect of ACE inhibitors, but it is not specifically associated with pregnancy or newly married status. Option B) Hyperkalemia is another common side effect of ACE inhibitors, but it is not directly related to pregnancy. Option C) Persistent cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors, but again, it is not specific to the context of a newly married woman potentially planning a pregnancy. In an educational context, it is essential for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential risks and contraindications of medications, especially in specific populations like pregnant women. Understanding the implications of medication use in pregnancy can prevent harm to both the mother and the developing fetus. It highlights the importance of thorough patient education, counseling, and monitoring to ensure the safe use of medications across the lifespan.
Question 4 of 5
A 7-year-old boy is brought to the ambulatory care clinic by his mother because of acting out in class and at home. In class, he often talks out of turn and does not stay focused on tasks. At home, his mother cannot get him to do his chores, and he never sits still. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this case, the most appropriate treatment for the 7-year-old boy displaying symptoms of hyperactivity, impulsivity, and inattention is option D) Methylphenidate, commonly used to treat attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) in children. Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant that helps improve focus, impulse control, and hyperactivity. Option A) Clomipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant used for obsessive-compulsive disorder, not ADHD. Option B) Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not ADHD. Option C) Lithium is a mood stabilizer primarily used for bipolar disorder, not ADHD. Educationally, understanding the appropriate pharmacological treatment for ADHD across different age groups is crucial for healthcare providers working with pediatric populations. Recognizing the symptoms of ADHD and knowing the appropriate medications can significantly impact a child's academic, social, and emotional well-being. It is important to consider factors such as age, comorbidities, and potential side effects when selecting the most suitable treatment option for a child with ADHD.
Question 5 of 5
A 32-year-old man who traveled to Brazil 1 week ago presents to the emergency department with swelling of his right eye. He has decreased vision in his right eye because of the swelling. His left eye is unaffected. A peripheral blood smear shows the presence of a parasite. The patient does remember being warned of reduviid bugs and that their bites are painless. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate treatment for the patient is option C) Nifurtimox. This patient likely has Chagas disease, caused by the parasite Trypanosoma cruzi, transmitted by reduviid bugs in endemic regions like Brazil. Nifurtimox is the first-line treatment for acute and chronic Chagas disease due to its efficacy in killing the parasite. Option A) Chloroquine is used for malaria, not Chagas disease. Option B) Melarsoprol is used for African trypanosomiasis, not Chagas disease. Option D) Sodium stibogluconate is used for leishmaniasis, not Chagas disease. Educationally, understanding the appropriate treatment for specific parasitic infections is crucial for healthcare providers, especially those practicing in endemic regions. This case highlights the importance of considering travel history, symptomatology, and appropriate drug therapy in the management of parasitic infections, enhancing diagnostic and treatment skills in clinical practice.