ATI RN
Psychotropic Medication Side Effects Questions
Question 1 of 5
A registered nurse is caring for an older male who reports depressive symptoms since his wife of 54 years died suddenly. He cries, maintains closed body posture, and avoids eye contact. Which nursing action describes attending behavior?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because sitting with the patient and taking cues for when to talk or remain silent demonstrates attending behavior. This approach allows the nurse to provide emotional support by being present and actively listening to the patient's needs without imposing advice or solutions. This nonverbal communication can help the patient feel understood and cared for during a difficult time. Choice A is incorrect because it minimizes the patient's feelings and suggests a quick fix rather than acknowledging and addressing the underlying emotions. Choice B is also incorrect as using a soft tone of voice is important but does not fully encompass attending behavior. Choice D is incorrect as offering medication and bereavement services is premature without first connecting with the patient on an emotional level.
Question 2 of 5
How can a newly hired nurse best attain information concerning the state's mental health laws and statutes?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Discuss the issue with the facility's compliance officer. This is the best option because compliance officers are responsible for ensuring that the facility adheres to all relevant laws and regulations, including mental health laws. They have specific knowledge and resources to provide accurate information. Option B is not the best choice because information found through an internet search may not be reliable or up-to-date. Option C is not directly related to state mental health laws and statutes. Option D may offer some information, but the compliance officer is the most appropriate source for specific details on state laws.
Question 3 of 5
A patient presented with progressive cognitive decline, an emerging personality disorder, and chorea. He was diagnosed with a neurodegenerative disorder, and his chorea was treated with phenothiazines. A CT scan showed atrophy of the head of the caudate nucleus. Which neurotransmitter is primarily involved in this disorder?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C) GABA. In the context of the presented case, the patient's symptoms of progressive cognitive decline, personality disorder, chorea, and atrophy of the caudate nucleus point towards Huntington's disease, a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by a reduction in GABAergic inhibition. GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain and is particularly important in regulating movement and cognitive functions. In Huntington's disease, there is a loss of GABAergic neurons in the caudate nucleus, leading to the symptoms described. Option A) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin) is not primarily involved in this disorder. While serotonin dysfunction can contribute to mood disorders, it is not the main neurotransmitter affected in Huntington's disease. Option B) Acetylcholine is not primarily involved in this disorder. Acetylcholine plays a role in motor control and cognitive function, but its dysfunction is not the primary cause of symptoms seen in Huntington's disease. Option D) Norepinephrine is not primarily involved in this disorder. Norepinephrine is involved in the body's stress response and mood regulation, but it is not the neurotransmitter primarily affected in Huntington's disease. Understanding the role of neurotransmitters in neurodegenerative disorders is crucial for healthcare professionals to accurately diagnose and manage patients with such conditions. This question provides a valuable learning opportunity to reinforce the relationship between neurotransmitter dysfunction and specific clinical manifestations seen in neurodegenerative diseases.
Question 4 of 5
The parent of an adolescent diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, 'My child's doctor ordered a PET. What kind of test is that?' Select the nurse's best reply.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, option B is the best response for the nurse to provide to the parent. A PET scan, which stands for positron-emission tomography, is a specialized imaging technique that allows visualization of brain activity and blood flow. This information is crucial in diagnosing and monitoring conditions like schizophrenia. By explaining this in simple terms to the parent, the nurse can help alleviate any anxiety or confusion they may have about the procedure. Option A is incorrect because it describes an MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) scan, not a PET scan. Additionally, asking about metal implants is not relevant to the discussion of a PET scan. Option C is incorrect as it describes an EEG (electroencephalogram) which measures electrical activity in the brain, not a PET scan. Option D is incorrect as it describes a CT scan (computed tomography), not a PET scan, and does not accurately depict the purpose and function of a PET scan in assessing brain activity. In an educational context, it is essential for nurses to effectively communicate with patients and their families to ensure they understand medical procedures and tests. Providing accurate information in a clear and concise manner helps build trust and empowers patients to be active participants in their healthcare decisions.
Question 5 of 5
The therapeutic action of neurotransmitter inhibitors that block reuptake cause:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) increased concentration of the blocked neurotransmitter in the synaptic gap. Explanation: Neurotransmitter inhibitors that block reuptake prevent the reabsorption of neurotransmitters back into the presynaptic neuron after they have been released into the synaptic gap. This results in an increased concentration of the blocked neurotransmitter in the synaptic gap. By blocking reuptake, these medications allow the neurotransmitter to remain in the synaptic gap longer, increasing its availability to bind to postsynaptic receptors and exert its effects. Why the other options are wrong: A) decreased concentration of the blocked neurotransmitter in the central nervous system: This is incorrect because blocking reuptake actually leads to an increased concentration of the neurotransmitter in the synaptic gap, not a decreased concentration in the central nervous system. C) destruction of receptor sites specific to the blocked neurotransmitter: This is incorrect because neurotransmitter inhibitors that block reuptake do not destroy receptor sites. They primarily act by interfering with the reuptake process, not by destroying receptors. D) limbic system stimulation: This is incorrect as it is not directly related to the mechanism of action of neurotransmitter inhibitors that block reuptake. These medications work by modulating neurotransmitter levels in the synaptic gap, rather than specifically targeting the limbic system for stimulation. Educational context: Understanding the mechanism of action of psychotropic medications is crucial for healthcare professionals working in mental health settings. Knowledge of how neurotransmitter inhibitors that block reuptake function can help in explaining the therapeutic effects and potential side effects of these medications to patients. It also aids in making informed decisions regarding medication selection and monitoring for adverse reactions.