Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

foundations of nursing test bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

A public health nurse is teaching a health promotion workshop that focuses on vision and eye health. What should this nurse cite as the most common causes of blindness and visual impairment among adults over the age of 40? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diabetic retinopathy. This is because diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness in adults over 40, resulting from diabetes affecting blood vessels in the retina. Trauma (B) is a common cause of visual impairment but not as prevalent as diabetic retinopathy in this age group. Macular degeneration (C) primarily affects older individuals, typically over 50, rather than those over 40. Cytomegalovirus (D) is a cause of blindness in immunocompromised individuals, not specific to the age group mentioned. Glaucoma (E) is a leading cause of blindness worldwide but is more common in older adults and not specifically over 40.

Question 2 of 5

The hospice nurse is caring for a patient with cancer in her home. The nurse has explained to the patient and the family that the patient is at risk for hypercalcemia and has educated them on that signs and symptoms of this health problem. What else should the nurse teach this patient and family to do to reduce the patients risk of hypercalcemia?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Option C is correct because adequate hydration helps prevent hypercalcemia by promoting the excretion of excess calcium in the urine. This reduces the risk of calcium buildup in the blood. Consuming 2 to 4 liters of fluid daily ensures proper hydration, which is crucial for patients at risk for hypercalcemia. Stool softeners (Option A) are not contraindicated and can help prevent constipation, which may be a side effect of some cancer treatments. Laxatives (Option B) should not be taken daily as they can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Restricting calcium intake (Option D) is not the primary intervention for preventing hypercalcemia; rather, maintaining adequate hydration is key.

Question 3 of 5

A hospice nurse is caring for a 22-year-old with a terminal diagnosis of leukemia. When updating this patients plan of nursing care, what should the nurse prioritize?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because providing realistic emotional preparation for death is a priority in caring for a patient with a terminal illness like leukemia. This helps the patient and their loved ones cope with the impending loss and make the most of the time left. Option A focuses solely on prolonging life, which may not align with the patient's wishes. Option B, providing financial advice, is important but not the top priority in this situation. Option D, maximizing family social interactions after the patient's death, is not immediate and does not address the patient's emotional needs.

Question 4 of 5

A 58-year-old male patient has been hospitalized for a wedge resection of the left lower lung lobe after a routine chest x-ray shows carcinoma. The patient is anxious and asks if he can smoke. Which statement by the nurse would be most therapeutic?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "You are anxious about the surgery. Do you see smoking as helping?" This response acknowledges the patient's anxiety and invites him to explore his reasons for wanting to smoke, opening up a dialogue and potentially uncovering underlying issues. It also avoids judgment or direct orders, fostering a therapeutic nurse-patient relationship. Explanation of why the other choices are incorrect: A: "Smoking is the reason you are here." - This response is blaming and may increase the patient's guilt or anxiety, hindering effective communication. B: "The doctor left orders for you not to smoke." - This response is authoritative and may lead to resistance or defensiveness from the patient, rather than addressing his concerns. D: "Smoking is OK right now, but after your surgery it is contraindicated." - This response is unclear and may send mixed messages to the patient, potentially leading to confusion or misunderstanding.

Question 5 of 5

To decrease glandular cellular activity and prostate size, an 83-year-old patient has been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). When performing patient education with this patient, the nurse should be sure to tell the patient what?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Finasteride is a medication that works by decreasing glandular cellular activity and reducing prostate size. Step 2: Dietary supplements can interact with finasteride, potentially affecting its effectiveness or causing adverse effects. Step 3: Reporting the planned use of dietary supplements to the physician ensures proper monitoring and adjustment of the treatment plan. Step 4: This communication promotes patient safety and optimal therapeutic outcomes. Therefore, choice A is correct as it emphasizes the importance of informing the physician about dietary supplement use to ensure the efficacy and safety of finasteride. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the mechanism of action or specific considerations of finasteride therapy.

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