ATI RN
Maternal Disorders Questions
Question 1 of 5
A public health nurse is teaching a group about STIs at a local community center. Which statement made by the group demonstrates a good understanding of the disease process?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sexual partners of the infected person must also be treated. This statement demonstrates a good understanding of the disease process because treating only the infected person may not prevent re-infection. Treating sexual partners is crucial to prevent the spread of STIs and reduce the risk of transmission. This approach is known as partner therapy and is recommended by public health guidelines to control the spread of STIs effectively. It is important to address the source of infection and not just the individual who is currently infected. Incorrect Choices: A: The infection can only be spread when a person is symptomatic - This is incorrect because some STIs can be transmitted even when the infected person is asymptomatic. B: I can only get the disease through vaginal intercourse - This is incorrect as STIs can be transmitted through various sexual activities, not just vaginal intercourse. D: Oral contraceptives are effective in protecting against STIs - This is incorrect as oral contraceptives do not protect against STIs;
Question 2 of 5
A client is being treated for gonorrhea. Which medication combination should the nurse expect to be prescribed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ceftriaxone and azithromycin. Ceftriaxone is the first-line treatment for gonorrhea due to increasing resistance to other antibiotics. Azithromycin is often prescribed in combination to treat possible co-infection with chlamydia. Penicillin (B) is not effective against gonorrhea. Tetracycline (C) is not recommended due to resistance issues. Levofloxacin (D) is no longer recommended due to resistance concerns. The combination of ceftriaxone and azithromycin covers both gonorrhea and possible chlamydia co-infection effectively.
Question 3 of 5
A male client reports painful urination and a creamy yellow drainage from the urethra. During the assessment, he admits to having unprotected sex. With which STI does the nurse associate these clinical manifestations?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Gonorrhea. Painful urination and yellow discharge from the urethra are classic symptoms of gonorrhea, a bacterial sexually transmitted infection (STI). Gonorrhea is commonly transmitted through unprotected sexual contact. The creamy yellow discharge is a key indicator of gonorrhea infection. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Candidiasis typically presents with white, cottage cheese-like discharge and itching, not yellow discharge or painful urination. B: HPV does not cause painful urination or discharge from the urethra; it usually presents with genital warts or abnormal pap smears. C: Trichomoniasis may cause green, frothy discharge and discomfort, but not creamy yellow discharge or painful urination.
Question 4 of 5
A client comes to a community clinic after being informed by a sexual partner of possible recent exposure to syphilis. The nurse will examine the client for which clinical manifestation of syphilis in the primary stage?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chancre. In the primary stage of syphilis, a painless, firm, and non-itchy sore called a chancre appears at the site of infection. This sore can develop within 3 weeks of exposure to the bacteria. It is important for the nurse to examine the client for chancres as they are a hallmark sign of primary syphilis. B: A copper-colored rash involving the trunk and extremities is seen in the secondary stage of syphilis, not the primary stage. C: Flulike symptoms may occur in the primary stage but are not specific to syphilis. D: Condyloma lata are wart-like growths seen in secondary syphilis, not the primary stage. Therefore, the presence of a chancre is the key clinical manifestation to identify in the primary stage of syphilis.
Question 5 of 5
During the physical assessment of a female client with HPV, which should the nurse expect to find?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Condylomata. HPV can manifest as genital warts or condylomata acuminata. These are flesh-colored growths that appear on the genital area. The presence of condylomata indicates an active HPV infection. Choices A and C are incorrect as purulent or malodorous discharge is not typically associated with HPV. Choice D is incorrect as HPV often presents with visible symptoms like condylomata.