ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A public health nurse is preparing an educational campaign to address a recent local increase in the incidence of HIV infection. The nurse should prioritize which of the following interventions?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Educational programs that focus on control and prevention. This intervention is the most crucial as it directly addresses the issue of the increasing incidence of HIV infection. By providing education on how to control and prevent the spread of HIV, the nurse can empower the community to take proactive measures to reduce transmission rates. A: Lifestyle actions that improve immune function may be helpful in general health promotion but do not directly target the prevention of HIV transmission. C: Appropriate use of standard precautions is important but is more focused on healthcare settings rather than community-wide prevention efforts. D: Screening programs for youth and young adults are valuable but may not be as effective as educational programs in preventing the spread of HIV.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is admitting an oncology patient to the unit prior to surgery. The nurse reads in the electronic health record that the patient has just finished radiation therapy. With knowledge of the consequent health risks, the nurse should prioritize assessments related to what health problem?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Impaired wound healing. Radiation therapy can lead to damage to the skin and blood vessels, affecting wound healing. The nurse should prioritize assessing the patient's skin integrity and any signs of impaired wound healing to prevent complications post-surgery. A: Cognitive deficits - While radiation therapy can impact cognitive function in some cases, it is not the most immediate concern related to surgery post-radiation therapy. C: Cardiac tamponade - Although radiation therapy can increase the risk of heart-related issues, such as pericarditis, cardiac tamponade is a rare and acute complication that is not the most likely immediate concern post-radiation therapy. D: Tumor lysis syndrome - This syndrome is more commonly seen in patients undergoing chemotherapy rather than radiation therapy. It is not typically a concern immediately post-radiation therapy.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse works at a hospital that uses equity-focusedquality improvement. Which strategy is the hospital using?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduce disparities. In equity-focused quality improvement, the primary goal is to address and reduce disparities in healthcare outcomes and access. By focusing on reducing disparities, the hospital ensures that all patients receive equitable care regardless of their background. Documenting staff satisfaction (A) is important but not directly related to equity-focused improvement. Focusing on the family (B) is essential for patient-centered care but doesn't specifically address equity. Implementing change on a grand scale (C) may not necessarily target disparities directly. Therefore, reducing disparities aligns best with equity-focused quality improvement principles.
Question 4 of 9
A patient is ready to be discharged home after a cataract extraction with intraocular lens implant and the nurse is reviewing signs and symptoms that need to be reported to the ophthalmologist immediately. Which of the patients statements best demonstrates an adequate understanding?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "I need to call the doctor if I see flashing lights." This is because seeing flashing lights after cataract extraction with intraocular lens implant can be a sign of a serious complication like retinal detachment. Prompt reporting is crucial to prevent vision loss. Choice A is incorrect because nausea is not typically a sign of a complication related to cataract surgery. Choice B is also incorrect as a light morning discharge is normal post-surgery unless it's excessive or associated with pain or visual changes. Choice C is incorrect as a scratchy feeling is common after surgery and usually resolves on its own.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is providing care for a patient who has experienced a type I hypersensitivity reaction. What condition is an example of such a reaction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anaphylactic reaction after a bee sting. Type I hypersensitivity reactions involve an immediate response triggered by exposure to an allergen, leading to the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators. In this case, a bee sting would introduce an allergen, causing a rapid and severe systemic reaction, known as anaphylaxis. B: Skin reaction resulting from adhesive tape is an example of a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction, mediated by T cells, not IgE antibodies as in Type I reactions. C: Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder involving antibodies attacking acetylcholine receptors, not a Type I hypersensitivity reaction. D: Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disorder involving immune complexes and inflammatory responses, not a Type I hypersensitivity reaction.
Question 6 of 9
A patient is experiencing oliguria. Which actionshould the nurse performfirst?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess for bladder distention. Oliguria indicates decreased urine output, which could be due to urinary retention. Assessing for bladder distention helps identify the underlying cause. Requesting diuretics (B) without assessing first is premature. Increasing IV fluid rate (C) may worsen the situation if there is urinary retention. Encouraging caffeinated beverages (D) is not appropriate as they can worsen dehydration.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is providing care to a patient with anindwelling catheter. Which practice indicates the nurse is following guidelines for avoiding catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drapes the urinary drainage tubing with no dependent loops. This practice helps prevent CAUTI by ensuring that urine does not flow back into the bladder, reducing the risk of infection. Dependent loops can lead to stagnant urine, providing a breeding ground for bacteria. Choice B is incorrect because washing the drainage tube towards the meatus can introduce bacteria into the urinary tract, increasing the risk of infection. Choice C is incorrect because placing the drainage bag on the floor can introduce contaminants from the floor into the system. Choice D is incorrect because allowing the spigot to touch the receptacle can lead to contamination and increase the risk of infection.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is using different toileting schedules.Which principles will the nurse keep in mind when planning care? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because habit training involves keeping a bladder diary to identify patterns and develop a toileting schedule. This helps in promoting regular voiding habits. B is incorrect because timed voiding isn't solely based on the patient's urge to void, but rather on a predetermined schedule. C is incorrect as prompted voiding involves reminding patients to use the restroom at regular intervals, not just asking if they are wet or dry. D is incorrect because elevating feet in patients with edema may help reduce swelling but has no direct impact on nighttime voiding.
Question 9 of 9
On otoscopy, a red blemish behind the tympanic membrane is suggestive of what diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cholesteatoma. A red blemish behind the tympanic membrane is indicative of a cholesteatoma, which is a noncancerous cyst in the middle ear. This occurs due to the accumulation of skin cells and debris in the middle ear space. Other choices (A, C, D) are not associated with a red blemish on otoscopy. An acoustic tumor (A) typically presents as a slow-growing mass on the vestibulocochlear nerve. Facial nerve neuroma (C) involves the facial nerve and does not typically cause a red blemish. Glomus tympanicum (D) is a vascular tumor arising from the middle ear but does not usually present as a red blemish.