ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A public health nurse has formed an interdisciplinary team that is developing an educational program entitled Cancer: The Risks and What You Can Do About Them. Participants will receive information, but the major focus will be screening for relevant cancers. This program is an example of what type of health promotion activity?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Secondary prevention. This program focuses on screening for relevant cancers, which is a key component of secondary prevention aimed at early detection and treatment to reduce the impact of the disease. Secondary prevention aims to identify and treat health conditions in their early stages. Disease prophylaxis (A) focuses on preventing the occurrence of a disease, while risk reduction (B) aims to lower the chances of developing a disease. Tertiary prevention (D) involves managing and improving outcomes for individuals already diagnosed with a disease. In this scenario, the emphasis on screening aligns closely with the goals of secondary prevention, making it the most appropriate choice.
Question 2 of 9
A patient has been admitted to the emergency department with signs of anaphylaxis following a bee sting. The nurse knows that if this is a true allergic reaction the patient will present with what alteration in laboratory values?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased eosinophils. Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell involved in allergic reactions. During anaphylaxis, the body releases chemicals that stimulate the production and activation of eosinophils, leading to an increase in their count. This helps in the identification of an allergic reaction. Incorrect Choices: B: Increased neutrophils - Neutrophils are not specific to allergic reactions and are typically increased in bacterial infections. C: Increased serum albumin - Serum albumin levels are not directly affected by allergic reactions. D: Decreased blood glucose - Hypoglycemia is not a typical manifestation of an allergic reaction.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with Huntington disease who has been admitted to the hospital for treatment of malnutrition. What independent nursing action should be implemented in the patients plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Encourage the patient to keep his or her feeding area clean. This is the most appropriate independent nursing action as it promotes hygiene and reduces the risk of infection. Keeping the feeding area clean is essential in preventing complications in a patient with malnutrition. Rationales for why the other choices are incorrect: A: Firmly redirect the patient's head when feeding - This is incorrect because forceful redirection can cause distress and discomfort to the patient, potentially leading to aspiration or choking. B: Administer phenothiazines after each meal as ordered - This is incorrect as phenothiazines are not typically used for malnutrition treatment and should not be administered without a specific indication. D: Apply deep, gentle pressure around the patient's mouth to aid swallowing - This is incorrect because applying pressure around the mouth can pose a choking hazard and should not be done without proper assessment and intervention by a speech therapist or swallowing specialist.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is developing a plan to reduce data entryerrors and maintain confidentiality. Which guidelines should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Implement an automatic sign-off. This guideline helps reduce data entry errors by ensuring that all entries are completed and saved before exiting the system, thus maintaining confidentiality. Bypassing the firewall (A) would compromise data security. Creating a password with just letters (C) may not be secure enough. Using a programmed speed-dial key when faxing (D) is unrelated to reducing data entry errors or maintaining confidentiality.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is watching a nursing assistive personnel(NAP) perform a postvoid bladder scan on a female with a previous hysterectomy. Which action will require the nurse to follow up?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because setting the scanner to female is incorrect for a patient who has had a hysterectomy as they do not have a uterus. This could lead to inaccurate results. Palpating the symphysis pubis (A) ensures proper positioning, wiping the scanner head with alcohol (B) maintains infection control, and applying gel (C) facilitates sound wave transmission.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is admitting an oncology patient to the unit prior to surgery. The nurse reads in the electronic health record that the patient has just finished radiation therapy. With knowledge of the consequent health risks, the nurse should prioritize assessments related to what health problem?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Impaired wound healing. Radiation therapy can lead to damage to the skin and blood vessels, affecting wound healing. The nurse should prioritize assessing the patient's skin integrity and any signs of impaired wound healing to prevent complications post-surgery. A: Cognitive deficits - While radiation therapy can impact cognitive function in some cases, it is not the most immediate concern related to surgery post-radiation therapy. C: Cardiac tamponade - Although radiation therapy can increase the risk of heart-related issues, such as pericarditis, cardiac tamponade is a rare and acute complication that is not the most likely immediate concern post-radiation therapy. D: Tumor lysis syndrome - This syndrome is more commonly seen in patients undergoing chemotherapy rather than radiation therapy. It is not typically a concern immediately post-radiation therapy.
Question 7 of 9
A patient is beginning an antiretroviral drug regimen shortly after being diagnosed with HIV. What nursing action is most likely to increase the likelihood of successful therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Addressing possible barriers to adherence. This is crucial because adherence to the antiretroviral drug regimen is key for successful therapy in HIV patients. By identifying and addressing barriers such as medication side effects, cost, or forgetfulness, nurses can help patients stay on track with their treatment. Other choices are incorrect: A: Promoting complementary therapies is not the priority in initiating antiretroviral therapy. Adherence to the prescribed regimen is more critical. C: Educating about the pathophysiology of HIV is important, but it may not directly impact the success of the therapy as much as addressing adherence barriers. D: While follow-up blood work is necessary, it is not as immediate and impactful as addressing adherence barriers at the beginning of therapy.
Question 8 of 9
Which clinical intervention is the only known cure for preeclampsia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Delivery of the fetus. The only known cure for preeclampsia is the delivery of the fetus, as this condition typically resolves after giving birth. Since preeclampsia can lead to serious complications for both the mother and baby, delivering the fetus is the most effective way to stop the progression of the condition. Magnesium sulfate (choice A) is used to prevent seizures in women with severe preeclampsia but does not cure the condition. Antihypertensive medications (choice C) are used to manage blood pressure in preeclampsia but do not cure it. Administration of aspirin (choice D) is used for prevention, not as a cure for preeclampsia.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is charting. Which information is criticalfor the nurse to document?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because documenting medication administration is critical for patient safety and continuity of care. By documenting the pain medication received, the nurse ensures accurate medication tracking and prevents errors. Choice A is incorrect as it lacks specific, objective information. Choice B is irrelevant to patient care. Choice D is inappropriate and violates patient confidentiality.