ATI RN
Cardiovascular Drugs Pharmacology Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A psychiatrist prescribes a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) for a client. Which foods should the nurse teach the client to avoid?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) Pepperoni pizza and red wine. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are a class of drugs used to treat depression and anxiety disorders by inhibiting the enzyme monoamine oxidase. This enzyme breaks down neurotransmitters such as serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine. When a person takes an MAOI, they need to be cautious about consuming foods high in tyramine, as it can lead to a hypertensive crisis due to the inhibition of MAO enzyme preventing the breakdown of tyramine. Pepperoni pizza and red wine are examples of foods high in tyramine. Pepperoni contains aged and fermented meats rich in tyramine, while red wine undergoes fermentation and contains high levels of tyramine as well. Consuming these foods while on an MAOI can lead to a dangerous increase in blood pressure. The other options (B) Bagels with cream cheese and tea, (C) Apple pie and coffee, and (D) Potato chips and diet cola do not contain high levels of tyramine and are not contraindicated with MAOI use. It is essential for healthcare providers to educate patients on dietary restrictions while taking MAOIs to prevent adverse reactions and ensure effective treatment. This knowledge is crucial for nurses to provide safe and comprehensive care to their patients.
Question 2 of 5
Which set of instructions is most appropriate when preparing the patient for collection of a 24-hour creatinine clearance for a prelithium workup?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: No consent form is required for this 24-hour urine and serum collection. Blood may be drawn at any time during the collection (if using Vacutainer, one red, red-gray, or gold top tube is needed). In the morning the first voiding is discarded, and then the collection is timed and urine is collected for 24 hours. All urine is stored in a clean, 3-L plastic container that is refrigerated when not in use and then delivered to the lab. Teaching the patient the procedure for a 24-hour creatinine clearance as part of a prelithium workup (urinalysis, BUN, TSH, T3 and T4, FBS, and a complete physical examination with history and workup for family history of renal disease, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, diuretic use, and analgesic abuse) is required.
Question 3 of 5
A client with schizophrenia is described as 'having difficulty with executive functions.' What can the nurse expect to assess behaviorally?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of a client with schizophrenia experiencing difficulty with executive functions, the nurse can expect to assess poor response to social cues behaviorally. Executive functions involve cognitive processes such as planning, organizing, problem-solving, and responding to social cues appropriately. In schizophrenia, deficits in executive functions are common, leading to challenges in social interactions and communication. Option A, inability to speak, is less likely to be directly related to executive function deficits in schizophrenia. While communication difficulties can occur in schizophrenia, they are not typically characterized by a complete inability to speak. Option B, inhibited behaviors, may not directly correlate with executive function deficits in schizophrenia. Inhibited behaviors can result from various factors, but may not specifically relate to the cognitive processes involved in executive functions. Option D, uncoordinated movements, is more indicative of motor coordination issues rather than deficits in executive functions. While motor abnormalities can be present in schizophrenia, they are not typically associated with executive function impairments. Understanding the behavioral manifestations of executive function deficits in clients with schizophrenia is crucial for nurses to provide appropriate care and support. Recognizing poor response to social cues can guide interventions aimed at improving social interactions and communication skills in individuals with schizophrenia.
Question 4 of 5
An ergot alkaloid is prescribed for a patient who is having frequent migraine headaches. The nurse provides information to the patient about the medication and tells the patient to contact the prescriber if which problem occurs?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Chest pain. Ergot alkaloids, such as ergotamine, are commonly used to treat migraines by constricting blood vessels in the brain. However, one of the potential side effects of ergot alkaloids is vasoconstriction of coronary arteries, which can lead to decreased blood flow to the heart and result in chest pain or angina. This adverse effect is a serious concern as it could indicate myocardial ischemia or even a heart attack. Option A) Nervousness and option B) Dizziness are common side effects of ergot alkaloids but are generally less concerning and may not require immediate medical attention. Option D) Nausea and vomiting are also common side effects of ergotamine but are not as critical as chest pain, which can signal a potentially life-threatening condition. Educationally, it is important for healthcare providers and patients to be aware of potential side effects of medications to monitor for and report promptly. Understanding the rationale behind specific side effects can help clinicians make informed decisions regarding patient care and safety. In the case of ergot alkaloids, recognizing and addressing chest pain promptly is crucial to prevent serious cardiac complications.
Question 5 of 5
A patient has been placed on a milrinone (Primacor) infusion as part of the therapy for end-stage heart failure. What adverse effect of this drug will the nurse watch for when assessing this patient during the infusion?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) Cardiac dysrhythmias. Milrinone is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor that works by increasing intracellular cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) levels leading to positive inotropic effects on the heart muscle. However, one of the major adverse effects of milrinone is an increased risk of developing cardiac dysrhythmias, such as ventricular arrhythmias, atrial fibrillation, and ventricular tachycardia. These dysrhythmias can be life-threatening and require prompt recognition and intervention. Option A) Hypertension is less likely as milrinone typically causes vasodilation and may actually lower blood pressure. Option B) Hyperkalemia is not a common adverse effect of milrinone infusion. Option C) Nausea and vomiting are possible adverse effects of milrinone, but they are generally not as critical or directly related to the drug's mechanism of action compared to cardiac dysrhythmias. In an educational context, it is essential for nurses and healthcare providers to be knowledgeable about the pharmacological effects and potential adverse reactions of medications used in the treatment of heart failure. Understanding these implications allows for vigilant monitoring, early recognition of adverse effects, and appropriate intervention to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.