A psychiatric-mental health nurse working in a Veteran's Administration Medical Center is meeting with a military wife who is an Asian American. The woman is to be joining a support group for wives of veterans who have posttraumatic stress syndrome. When asking her to describe her husband's mental health problems, which response would the nurse most likely expect?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it highlights a common cultural belief in Asian communities that mental health issues can be attributed to physical causes like vitamin deficiencies. This response indicates the wife's potential perspective and understanding of her husband's mental health problems, which is important for the nurse to consider when providing support. Choice B is incorrect as it perpetuates a negative stereotype about mental health issues being solely caused by war trauma. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests severe symptoms of PTSD without considering the cultural context. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on the husband's behavior rather than his potential mental health issues and lacks cultural sensitivity.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because asking about hallucinations is crucial for assessing the individual's mental state. Hearing voices that no one else can hear may indicate a psychotic disorder, which could be relevant for an insanity defense. Choice A is irrelevant to legal insanity defense as intellectual deficiency is not the same as legal insanity. Choice C focuses on the crime but does not directly address the individual's mental state. Choice D is also irrelevant to the legal insanity defense as knowing the victim does not determine legal sanity.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The nurse expresses a sense of discomfort and limits behaviors. This is the appropriate intervention because it establishes clear boundaries and communicates the nurse's discomfort while maintaining a therapeutic relationship. By expressing discomfort and setting limits, the nurse asserts their personal space and ensures a safe environment for both parties. Choice A is incorrect because ignoring the behavior doesn't address the issue and may compromise the nurse's well-being. Choice C is incorrect as it passively accepts the invasion of personal space without addressing the discomfort. Choice D is incorrect as it immediately escalates the situation to a confrontational level, which may not be necessary at this stage and could harm the therapeutic relationship.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Depression. In complex somatic symptom disorder, individuals experience persistent, distressing physical symptoms without an underlying medical cause. Depression commonly coexists with this disorder due to the significant emotional distress and impact on daily functioning. The nurse would be alert for symptoms of depression such as persistent sadness, lack of interest in activities, changes in appetite or sleep, and feelings of worthlessness. Summary: - A: Depression is correct as it commonly coexists with complex somatic symptom disorder due to emotional distress. - B: Avoidant personality disorder is incorrect as it is a separate personality disorder characterized by avoidance of social interactions and feelings of inadequacy. - C: Delirium is incorrect as it is an acute confusional state with altered consciousness and attention. - D: Bipolar disorder is incorrect as it is a mood disorder characterized by episodes of mania and depression.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bathing Self-Care Deficit related to symptoms of schizophrenia. The priority nursing diagnosis should address the most immediate and essential need for the client's well-being. In this case, the client's disheveled appearance, uncombed and matted hair, and strange odor indicate a lack of self-care in terms of personal hygiene, specifically bathing. This can lead to physical health issues and negatively impact the client's self-esteem and social interactions. Addressing the bathing self-care deficit is crucial to improving the client's overall health and well-being. A: Ineffective Role Performance related to symptoms of schizophrenia - While this is a valid concern, addressing the client's basic self-care needs should take precedence over role performance. B: Social Isolation related to auditory hallucinations - While social isolation is important, the immediate focus should be on addressing the client's personal hygiene needs. C: Dysfunctional Family Processes related to psychosis - While involving the family is important, the priority

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Peplau's interpersonal theory emphasizes the importance of nurse-patient relationships and therapeutic communication. Using assertive communication helps build trust, address the patient's needs, and promote a therapeutic relationship. Rewarding desired behaviors (A) is behaviorist in nature and does not address the underlying emotional issues. Changing the patient's self-concept (C) is a long-term process that may not be appropriate for immediate care. Administering medications (D) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying emotional issues or promote therapeutic communication.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a large group is more effective for dealing with a specific issue due to the diversity of perspectives and experiences that can be shared. In a large group, there are more opportunities for brainstorming, problem-solving, and support. This leads to a richer discussion and more comprehensive exploration of the issue at hand. Choice A is incorrect because transference and countertransference issues can still arise in a large group setting. Choice B is incorrect as group cohesiveness may actually be harder to achieve in a larger group. Choice C is incorrect as a large group offers more potential interactions and relationships, not limited ones.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Antisocial personality disorder. Individuals with antisocial personality disorder have a higher risk for substance abuse due to impulsivity, sensation-seeking behavior, and disregard for societal norms. This disorder is characterized by a lack of empathy and concern for others, leading to risky behaviors such as substance abuse. Mania, panic disorder, and phobias are not typically associated with as high a risk for substance abuse as antisocial personality disorder due to different underlying mechanisms. Mania is associated with impulsive behavior but may not always involve substance abuse. Panic disorder and phobias are anxiety disorders that are more focused on specific fears and avoidance behaviors rather than substance abuse tendencies.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: One effective type of behavioral therapy used for tics is CBIT. This is correct because Comprehensive Behavioral Intervention for Tics (CBIT) is a well-established and evidence-based therapy for managing tics in individuals with tic disorders, including Tourette syndrome. CBIT focuses on teaching individuals techniques to monitor and control their tics through behavioral strategies. Choice B is incorrect because there are treatments available for Tourette syndrome, including medications and behavioral therapies like CBIT. Choice C is incorrect because not all people with tic disorders will have them for their entire lives; some may see improvement over time. Choice D is incorrect because Tourette syndrome typically starts in childhood, usually between the ages of 2 and 12 years old, not after age eighteen.