A profession is characterized by the following except:

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Question 1 of 9

A profession is characterized by the following except:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A profession is characterized by having a body of knowledge, a code of ethics, and engaging in research. However, being a member of a professional organization is not a defining characteristic of a profession. While many professionals may choose to join professional organizations for networking, support, and career advancement reasons, membership in such organizations is not universally required or exclusive to being considered a professional in a particular field. Hence, the presence or absence of professional organization membership does not determine the professional status of an individual.

Question 2 of 9

A nurse is preparing to administer a nasogastric (NG) tube feeding for a patient. What action should the nurse prioritize before initiating tube feeding?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize checking the patency of the NG tube by aspirating gastric contents before initiating tube feeding. This is important to ensure that the NG tube is in the correct position and that it is functioning properly. By aspirating gastric contents, the nurse can confirm that the tube is in the stomach and not in the lungs or surrounding tissues. If no gastric contents are obtained upon aspiration, it may indicate that the tube is not properly placed or may be occluded, which would require further assessment and intervention before proceeding with tube feeding. Checking the patency of the NG tube is a crucial step in ensuring the safety and effectiveness of enteral nutrition delivery.

Question 3 of 9

Which medication will be prescribed to control and maintain the blood pressue of patients at normal level?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Amlodipine is a medication commonly prescribed to control and maintain blood pressure at normal levels. It belongs to a class of drugs known as calcium channel blockers, which work by relaxing and widening blood vessels, making it easier for the heart to pump blood around the body. This ultimately helps to lower blood pressure and reduce the workload on the heart, decreasing the risk of cardiovascular events like heart attacks and strokes. Lidocaine, Epinephrine, and Furosemide are not typically used for controlling and maintaining blood pressure within normal limits.

Question 4 of 9

A patient presents with chest pain that occurs during emotional stress and resolves spontaneously. An electrocardiogram (ECG) may show transient ST-segment elevation. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Takotsubo cardiomyopathy, also known as stress-induced cardiomyopathy or broken heart syndrome, presents with symptoms similar to acute coronary syndrome, such as chest pain and ECG changes. In Takotsubo cardiomyopathy, chest pain typically occurs during emotional stress and resolves spontaneously, similar to the scenario described in the question. The ECG may show transient ST-segment elevation. This condition is characterized by a reversible left ventricular dysfunction that can mimic a myocardial infarction. Unlike stable angina (Choice A) and unstable angina (Choice B), Takotsubo cardiomyopathy is not related to coronary artery disease. Acute myocardial infarction (Choice C) typically presents with persistent ST-segment elevation on ECG and is caused by atherosclerotic plaque rupture leading to myocardial infarction, which is not consistent with the transient ST-segment elevation seen in

Question 5 of 9

A patient asks the nurse about alternative treatment options for their condition. What is the nurse's best response?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's best response when a patient asks about alternative treatment options is to provide the patient with information about those options, including their benefits and risks. It is important for the nurse to support the patient in their exploration of different treatment approaches and empower them to make informed decisions about their care. Dismissing the question, ignoring it, or discouraging alternative treatments are not appropriate responses and may hinder the patient's ability to make choices that align with their values and preferences. Therefore, providing information and facilitating an open discussion about alternative treatments is the most appropriate approach for the patient's best interest.

Question 6 of 9

A patient with a spinal cord injury at the level of T6 presents with hypotension, bradycardia, and diaphoresis following a sudden change in position from supine to sitting. Which condition is the patient most likely experiencing?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient is most likely experiencing autonomic dysreflexia. Autonomic dysreflexia is a potentially life-threatening condition that can occur in individuals with spinal cord injuries at the level of T6 or above. It is characterized by a sudden onset of severe hypertension, bradycardia, diaphoresis, flushing, and headache in response to a noxious stimulus below the level of injury. The sudden change in position from supine to sitting likely triggered autonomic dysreflexia in this patient.

Question 7 of 9

A patient is prescribed a beta-blocker for the management of hypertension. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Beta-blockers are a class of medications commonly used to manage hypertension. One of the main mechanisms of action of beta-blockers is to reduce heart rate and contractility by blocking the beta-adrenergic receptors in the heart. As a result, one of the potential adverse effects of beta-blockers is bradycardia, which refers to a slower than normal heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the patient for signs and symptoms of bradycardia when starting or adjusting the dose of a beta-blocker. Symptoms of bradycardia may include dizziness, fainting, fatigue, or shortness of breath. If bradycardia is severe or symptomatic, it may require dose adjustments or discontinuation of the beta-blocker to prevent complications.

Question 8 of 9

Which of the following energy conserving strategies should NOT be done by COPD patients?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease) patients often struggle with breathing difficulties due to their conditions, hence it is important for them to conserve their energy as much as possible. Standing while performing activities like shaving or combing hair can be physically demanding for COPD patients as it requires more energy and can lead to increased shortness of breath. It is recommended for COPD patients to sit down or assume a supported position (like the tripod position with elbows supported on a table) to reduce the energy expended and minimize the strain on their respiratory system. Standing in front of the mirror while performing grooming activities is a task that can be easily modified to a seated position, thus conserving energy and reducing the risk of exacerbating breathing difficulties for COPD patients.

Question 9 of 9

One evening, Sonny complained of dyspnea despite continuous oxygen therapy. What should be the FIRST action of the nurse?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The FIRST action of the nurse should be to reassess the client experiencing dyspnea despite continuous oxygen therapy. Reassessment would involve checking the client's respiratory status, oxygen saturation levels, vital signs, and overall condition to gather more information about the situation. This will help the nurse identify any potential causes of the dyspnea and determine the appropriate next steps for intervention. Assessing the client before proceeding with any other actions is crucial in providing safe and effective care.

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