ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
A profession is characterized by the following except:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A profession is characterized by having a body of knowledge, a code of ethics, and engaging in research. However, being a member of a professional organization is not a defining characteristic of a profession. While many professionals may choose to join professional organizations for networking, support, and career advancement reasons, membership in such organizations is not universally required or exclusive to being considered a professional in a particular field. Hence, the presence or absence of professional organization membership does not determine the professional status of an individual.
Question 2 of 9
A patient presents with weight loss, fatigue, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Laboratory tests reveal hypoglycemia and elevated insulin levels. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Insulinoma is a rare neuroendocrine tumor that arises from pancreatic beta cells, leading to excessive production and secretion of insulin. The symptoms described in the patient, such as weight loss, fatigue, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, hypoglycemia, and elevated insulin levels, are characteristic of insulinoma.
Question 3 of 9
When collecting evidence from a rape victim, the victim's clothing is removed and placed in a
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When collecting evidence from a rape victim, it is important to handle the victim's clothing properly to preserve any potential evidence. The preferred method is to remove the clothing and place them in a paper bag. Paper bags are used in order to prevent the alteration or degradation of any DNA evidence that may be present on the clothing. Paper bags allow the clothing to breathe and prevent the growth of mold or other contaminants that can occur in plastic bags or trash bags. Additionally, paper bags help preserve trace evidence such as fibers or hairs that may be crucial in the investigation of the case. It is essential to handle and store the clothing correctly to maintain the integrity of the evidence for the investigation and potential prosecution.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with a spinal cord injury at the level of T6 presents with hypotension, bradycardia, and diaphoresis following a sudden change in position from supine to sitting. Which condition is the patient most likely experiencing?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient is most likely experiencing autonomic dysreflexia. Autonomic dysreflexia is a potentially life-threatening condition that can occur in individuals with spinal cord injuries at the level of T6 or above. It is characterized by a sudden onset of severe hypertension, bradycardia, diaphoresis, flushing, and headache in response to a noxious stimulus below the level of injury. The sudden change in position from supine to sitting likely triggered autonomic dysreflexia in this patient.
Question 5 of 9
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE). Laboratory tests reveal elevated levels of antiphospholipid antibodies (anticardiolipin and lupus anticoagulant). Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Antiphospholipid syndrome is characterized by abnormal antiphospholipid antibodies, which can lead to an increased risk of blood clots such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE). The two most common antiphospholipid antibodies are anticardiolipin and lupus anticoagulant. Patients with antiphospholipid syndrome can present with recurrent thrombotic events, such as DVT and PE, due to the pro-thrombotic effects of these antibodies. Protein C deficiency, Protein S deficiency, and Antithrombin III deficiency are other causes of hypercoagulability but would not typically present with elevated antiphospholipid antibodies.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following are some elements of primary health care except?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Primary health care encompasses a wide range of essential health services. While services such as the use of appropriate technology, safe water supply, and maternal child care are components of primary health care, providing free medicines is not typically considered a core element. Primary health care emphasizes accessibility, affordability, and basic health services, but free medicines may not always be sustainable or feasible in every healthcare setting. Patients may be required to pay for medications, utilize health insurance, or receive medications through public health programs, rather than always receiving them for free.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with acute pain and swelling of the wrist joint. Physical examination reveals ulnar deviation of the fingers and swan-neck deformity of the digits. Which imaging modality is most appropriate for further evaluation of wrist involvement in rheumatoid arthritis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: X-ray is the most appropriate imaging modality for evaluating wrist involvement in rheumatoid arthritis. It can show joint space narrowing, erosions, soft tissue swelling, and periarticular osteopenia. X-rays are readily available, cost-effective, and provide valuable information about joint damage and disease progression in rheumatoid arthritis. In this case, X-ray would be able to confirm the presence of erosions, joint deformities, and assess the severity of the disease in the wrist joint. While MRI and ultrasound can also be helpful in evaluating rheumatoid arthritis, X-ray remains the initial imaging modality of choice due to its convenience and ability to assess bony changes. Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan is not indicated for evaluating wrist involvement in rheumatoid arthritis.
Question 8 of 9
A postpartum client who delivered vaginally reports difficulty emptying the bladder completely and experiences urinary frequency. What nursing intervention should be prioritized to address this issue?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention in this situation is to first assess the client for signs of urinary retention or bladder distention. Difficulty in emptying the bladder completely and experiencing urinary frequency can be indications of urinary retention, which can lead to bladder distention and possible complications such as urinary tract infection. By assessing the client, the nurse can determine the cause of the issue and implement appropriate interventions. It is crucial to address potential complications promptly to promote the client's health and well-being postpartum. Once the assessment is completed, further interventions such as recommending appropriate measures, like warm compresses or pelvic floor exercises, can be considered based on the assessment findings.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following immune cells is primarily responsible for coordinating and regulating immune responses by producing cytokines that direct the activities of other immune cells?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: T helper cells (Th cells) are primarily responsible for coordinating and regulating immune responses by producing cytokines that direct the activities of other immune cells. These cytokines help in activating cytotoxic T cells, B cells, macrophages, and other cells involved in the immune response. Th cells play a crucial role in mounting an effective immune response against infections and diseases by providing the necessary signals to activate and control various immune cells. Thus, T helper cells are considered the central coordinators of the immune system.