A pregnant woman presents with vaginal bleeding and crampy abdominal pain at 22 weeks gestation. On examination, the cervix is dilated, and the amniotic sac is visible at the cervical os. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

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Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A pregnant woman presents with vaginal bleeding and crampy abdominal pain at 22 weeks gestation. On examination, the cervix is dilated, and the amniotic sac is visible at the cervical os. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Incompetent cervix, also known as cervical insufficiency, is the most likely cause of the symptoms described. Incompetent cervix is a condition where the cervix begins to dilate and efface prematurely, typically in the second trimester, without contractions or labor. This can lead to painless cervical dilation and bulging of the amniotic sac into the vagina, which can cause vaginal bleeding and crampy abdominal pain. It is a leading cause of second-trimester pregnancy loss. Treatment may involve a cervical cerclage, a surgical procedure where the cervix is stitched closed to provide additional support.

Question 2 of 9

Nurse Rosa is able to know the patterns of occurrence and distribution of diseases in the community . Per record she found out there had been cases of rabies at irregular intervals scattered in particular places. This occurrence rates to ______.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The occurrence of rabies at irregular intervals scattered in particular places indicates a sporadic pattern. Sporadic diseases are those that occur infrequently and irregularly in a population. These diseases do not have a consistent pattern of occurrence and are not confined to a specific geographic area or population group. In this case, the cases of rabies being reported at irregular intervals and scattered in particular places suggest a sporadic distribution rather than an endemic (constantly present in a population), epidemic (sudden increase in cases in a specific population), or pandemic (global spread of a disease) pattern.

Question 3 of 9

Non verbal communication is as strong in conveying information because the nurse can _________.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Nonverbal communication is as strong in conveying information because the nurse can effectively interpret and understand gestures made by the individual they are interacting with. Gestures such as hand movements, facial expressions, eye contact, and body posture can communicate a lot of information without the use of words. By observing these nonverbal cues, nurses can better comprehend the emotions, needs, and feelings of their patients or colleagues, leading to more effective communication and overall better care. Nonverbal communication, including gestures, plays a significant role in creating a holistic understanding of individuals' messages beyond just words.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following procedures would be MOST helpful to Nurse Victor to confirm the underlying cause of cardiogenic shock?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring cardiac enzymes would be most helpful to Nurse Victor to confirm the underlying cause of cardiogenic shock. Cardiac enzymes are specific markers in the blood that indicate damage to the heart muscle, such as troponin and creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB). When a patient experiences cardiogenic shock, there is usually damage to the heart muscle which leads to the release of these enzymes into the bloodstream. Monitoring cardiac enzymes can help confirm if the cause of cardiogenic shock is related to myocardial infarction or another cardiac issue. This information is crucial for determining the appropriate treatment and management plan for the patient. Monitoring pulmonary artery pressure, mean arterial pressure, and central venous pressure may provide important hemodynamic information but may not directly confirm the underlying cause of cardiogenic shock.

Question 5 of 9

A patient became seriously ill after a nurse gave him the wrong medication. After his recovery , he filed a lawsuit. Who is MOST likely to be held liable?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In cases where a patient becomes seriously ill or is harmed due to receiving the wrong medication, both the nurse and the hospital are likely to be held liable. The nurse is responsible for administering the correct medication to the patient, and any error in this process can lead to harm. The hospital may also be held liable for the actions of its employees, including nurses, under the legal principle of vicarious liability. Additionally, the hospital has a duty to ensure that proper protocols are in place to prevent medication errors, and failure to do so can lead to liability. Therefore, in this scenario, both the nurse and the hospital are likely to share liability for the patient's harm.

Question 6 of 9

A 35-year-old woman presents with irregular menstrual cycles, hirsutism, and acne. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be associated with these symptoms?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a common hormonal disorder in women of reproductive age. The classic symptoms of PCOS include irregular menstrual cycles, hirsutism (excess hair growth in a male pattern), and acne. Women with PCOS often have enlarged ovaries with multiple small cysts. Other common features include obesity, insulin resistance, and infertility. Endometriosis is characterized by the presence and growth of endometrial-like tissue outside the uterus, leading to symptoms such as pelvic pain and infertility. Ovarian cancer usually presents with nonspecific symptoms and is less likely in a young woman with these specific symptoms. Uterine fibroids are benign tumors that can cause heavy menstrual bleeding and pelvic pressure but are less likely to be associated with hirsutism and acne.

Question 7 of 9

Following a severe traumatic brain injury, a patient is experiencing alterations in consciousness characterized by periods of wakefulness but with no meaningful interaction with the environment. Which term best describes this state?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A vegetative state, now more commonly referred to as unresponsive wakefulness syndrome, describes a condition where the patient is awake but with no awareness of themselves or their surroundings. This state usually follows a severe brain injury, such as traumatic brain injury. Patients in a vegetative state may have sleep-wake cycles, open their eyes, and even exhibit reflex movements, but they do not demonstrate any meaningful interaction with the environment. Differentiating between coma and vegetative state is important, as coma implies a complete lack of consciousness, while patients in a vegetative state have preserved wakefulness without awareness. Minimally conscious state (choice C) refers to a condition where there are some minimal signs of awareness or purposeful interaction, making it a different state than the one described in the scenario. Locked-in syndrome (choice D) is a condition where the patient is conscious and aware but unable to move or communicate due to paralysis, which is not consistent

Question 8 of 9

A patient presents with fatigue, weakness, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal hemolytic anemia, elevated LDH, decreased haptoglobin, and presence of schistocytes on peripheral blood smear. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is an X-linked recessive disorder that leads to hemolytic anemia in response to oxidative stress. The patient's presentation of fatigue, weakness, and jaundice along with laboratory findings of hemolytic anemia (evidenced by schistocytes), elevated LDH, and decreased haptoglobin are all characteristic of G6PD deficiency. The oxidative stress causes red blood cell destruction, resulting in the release of LDH and bilirubin, leading to jaundice. Decreased haptoglobin is seen due to its consumption in binding free hemoglobin released from the lysed red blood cells. Additionally, the presence of schistocytes on a peripheral blood smear is indicative of red blood cell fragmentation, a common finding in hemolytic anemias including G6PD deficiency

Question 9 of 9

A postpartum client presents with sudden chest pain, dyspnea, and tachycardia. Which nursing action should be prioritized?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Sudden chest pain, dyspnea, and tachycardia in a postpartum client can be indicative of serious conditions such as pulmonary embolism or myocardial infarction. These conditions are emergencies that require immediate medical attention. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately is the priority to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention to address the potential life-threatening situation. While other nursing interventions such as elevating the head of the bed, providing supplemental oxygen therapy, and administering analgesics may be necessary, they should be done after notifying the healthcare provider to ensure appropriate management of the underlying cause.

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