ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A pregnant woman presents with vaginal bleeding and crampy abdominal pain at 22 weeks gestation. On examination, the cervix is dilated, and the amniotic sac is visible at the cervical os. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Incompetent cervix, also known as cervical insufficiency, is the most likely cause of the symptoms described. Incompetent cervix is a condition where the cervix begins to dilate and efface prematurely, typically in the second trimester, without contractions or labor. This can lead to painless cervical dilation and bulging of the amniotic sac into the vagina, which can cause vaginal bleeding and crampy abdominal pain. It is a leading cause of second-trimester pregnancy loss. Treatment may involve a cervical cerclage, a surgical procedure where the cervix is stitched closed to provide additional support.
Question 2 of 9
As a nurse, which of the following are the critical factors for successful integration of loss during the grieving process?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Accurate assessment and intervention by the nurse or helping person are critical factors for successful integration of loss during the grieving process. This involves the nurse's ability to assess the patient's grieving process effectively, identify their needs, provide appropriate support, and intervene when necessary. By utilizing proper assessment techniques and offering timely interventions, the nurse helps facilitate the patient's journey through the grieving process, promoting healthy coping mechanisms and ultimately assisting in achieving successful integration of their loss. Trustworthiness and a healthy attitude about grief are important qualities for a nurse, but without accurate assessment and intervention, the grieving process may not progress smoothly.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with chronic kidney disease presents with progressively worsening anemia and elevated serum phosphate levels. Which medication is commonly prescribed to reduce serum phosphate levels in patients with chronic kidney disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sevelamer is a medication commonly prescribed to reduce serum phosphate levels in patients with chronic kidney disease. Sevelamer is a phosphate binder that works by binding to dietary phosphate in the gut, preventing its absorption into the bloodstream. By reducing serum phosphate levels, sevelamer helps manage complications associated with hyperphosphatemia in chronic kidney disease patients, such as mineral and bone disorders. Other medications like epoetin alfa are used to treat anemia commonly seen in chronic kidney disease patients, while cinacalcet is used to manage secondary hyperparathyroidism. Allopurinol, on the other hand, is used to treat gout by reducing uric acid levels and is not indicated for reducing serum phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease patients.
Question 4 of 9
Should the investigation of the fall go further, which of the following is the best source of factual information ?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The incident report is the best source of factual information to investigate the fall further. Incident reports are official documents that provide a detailed account of what happened leading up to and during an incident. They include factual information such as the date, time, location, individuals involved, and details of the event. By reviewing the incident report, investigators can gather accurate information to determine the cause of the fall and any contributing factors. This document serves as an essential tool in conducting a thorough investigation into the fall and helps in identifying preventive measures to avoid similar incidents in the future.
Question 5 of 9
In Participative Action Research [PAR], which step will empower the community?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In Participative Action Research (PAR), the core idea is to empower the community by involving them in the research process. By actively engaging community members in all stages of the research, they gain a sense of ownership and are empowered to take action based on the research findings. This approach ensures that the solutions generated are relevant, sustainable, and community-driven. Therefore, participation and engagement of the community is the step that will empower the community in PAR, unlike the other options where the focus is on external individuals or entities.
Question 6 of 9
Nurse Vera informs the patient she should be screened for pre-eclmapsia during this term of pregnancy_______.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pre-eclampsia is a serious condition that can occur during pregnancy, usually after 20 weeks gestation. It is important to screen for pre-eclampsia early in the pregnancy to monitor and manage the condition effectively. Screening for pre-eclampsia typically begins in the first trimester of pregnancy to identify any risk factors and provide appropriate care for the patient. Therefore, Nurse Vera informing the patient to get screened for pre-eclampsia in the first term of pregnancy is the most appropriate time to start monitoring for this condition.
Question 7 of 9
A community clinic does primary care for patients. Most often the one who manages this is which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a community clinic providing primary care for patients, the most common healthcare professional who manages patient care is a physician. Physicians, also known as doctors, are trained and licensed to diagnose and treat a wide range of medical conditions. They are responsible for conducting exams, prescribing medications, ordering tests, and developing treatment plans for patients. While other healthcare professionals such as nurses, midwives, and barangay health workers also play important roles in providing care, physicians typically lead the team, make critical decisions, and provide overall management of patient care in a primary care setting like a community clinic.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with a history of cirrhosis is at risk for developing hepatic encephalopathy. Which nursing intervention is most effective in preventing and managing hepatic encephalopathy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lactulose is the most effective nursing intervention in preventing and managing hepatic encephalopathy in patients with cirrhosis. Lactulose works by promoting the elimination of ammonia in the colon through its laxative effect, thereby reducing ammonia levels in the blood. High ammonia levels are associated with the development of hepatic encephalopathy. By administering lactulose as prescribed, nurses can help reduce the risk of encephalopathy and manage symptoms effectively. Monitoring serum ammonia levels is important in assessing the effectiveness of lactulose therapy, but administering lactulose is the primary nursing intervention in this situation. Dietary protein restriction is also commonly recommended; however, lactulose administration is the most vital intervention in this scenario. Additionally, encouraging increased fluid intake is important for overall liver health but is not as specific to preventing and managing hepatic encephalopathy as administering lactulose.
Question 9 of 9
The first standard step in oxygen therapy that the nurse should do is________.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The first standard step in oxygen therapy that the nurse should do is to assess the client's condition. Before initiating any oxygen treatment, it is essential to assess the client's respiratory status, oxygen saturation levels, vital signs, and overall condition. This initial assessment helps the nurse to determine the appropriate course of oxygen therapy based on the client's individual needs and current health status. Assessing the client's condition first ensures that the oxygen therapy provided is safe and effective for the specific needs of the client.