ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Answer Key Questions
Question 1 of 9
A pregnant woman presents with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and dark red vaginal bleeding at 28 weeks gestation. On examination, the uterus is tender, and the fundus feels firm. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most likely cause of the sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and dark red vaginal bleeding with a tender, firm uterus at 28 weeks gestation is abruptio placentae. Abruptio placentae, also known as placental abruption, is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before delivery. This condition can be life-threatening to both the mother and the fetus, as it can lead to severe bleeding and compromise the oxygen and nutrients supply to the fetus. The presentation typically includes severe abdominal pain, dark red or maroon vaginal bleeding, uterine tenderness, and a firm uterus due to the blood accumulation behind the placenta. Prompt recognition and intervention are crucial to prevent adverse maternal and fetal outcomes.
Question 2 of 9
A patient presents with generalized weakness, headache, and difficulty concentrating. Laboratory tests reveal normocytic normochromic anemia, normal iron studies, and elevated serum erythropoietin levels. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient in this scenario presents with normocytic normochromic anemia, normal iron studies, and elevated serum erythropoietin levels. These findings are characteristic of anemia of chronic disease, which is commonly seen in patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD). In CKD, there is a decrease in renal production of erythropoietin, leading to reduced stimulation of erythropoiesis and subsequent anemia. The normocytic normochromic anemia pattern is typical in anemia of chronic disease, as opposed to microcytic hypochromic anemia seen in iron deficiency anemia and thalassemia. Aplastic anemia is characterized by pancytopenia, which is not described in the scenario. Therefore, the most likely cause of the patient's presentation is chronic kidney disease.
Question 3 of 9
A patient presents with sudden onset of severe chest pain radiating to the back, hypotension, and a widened mediastinum on chest X-ray. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: #NAME?
Question 4 of 9
The presence of any of these risk factors means that ______.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The presence of risk factors indicates an increased likelihood or susceptibility to developing a particular disease. While risk modification and healthy lifestyle choices can help reduce the risk, having these risk factors still increases the overall chances of getting the disease compared to individuals without the same risk factors. It is essential for individuals with risk factors to be proactive in managing their health to mitigate the increased risk.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse instructs the patient that the BEST time for an incontinent patient to take his diuretics is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The best time for an incontinent patient to take diuretics is at bedtime. This timing allows for increased urine production during the night, consequently reducing the need for frequent toileting during the day. By taking the diuretic at bedtime, the patient can manage their incontinence more effectively and have better rest without disruptions from frequent urination during the day.
Question 6 of 9
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of venous thrombosis, including deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE), despite no apparent provoking factors. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Factor V Leiden mutation is the most common inherited predisposition to venous thrombosis. In this condition, there is a specific mutation in the factor V gene (also known as factor V Leiden) that makes factor V resistant to inactivation by activated protein C. This resistance leads to excessive clot formation, increasing the risk of recurrent venous thrombosis like DVT and PE. Patients with Factor V Leiden mutation may have a history of recurrent unprovoked venous thrombosis at a young age. In comparison, antithrombin III deficiency, protein C deficiency, and protein S deficiency are other inherited thrombophilias that may increase the risk of venous thrombosis, but Factor V Leiden mutation is the most likely cause in this case based on the presentation of recurrent episodes without apparent provoking factors.
Question 7 of 9
After the surgical procedure, the nurse assists with applying the surgical dressing. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse's priority action after applying the surgical dressing is to assess the surgical incision for signs of complications. This includes checking for any signs of infection, excessive bleeding, or other complications related to the surgical site. Early detection of such complications is crucial for ensuring proper healing and preventing serious complications. Once the assessment is done and any issues are addressed, the nurse can proceed with documenting the dressing change, providing instructions to the patient about wound care, and ensuring that the dressing is securely and correctly applied.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with a tibial shaft fracture undergoes surgical fixation with an intramedullary nail. What postoperative complication should the healthcare team monitor for in the immediate postoperative period?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Following surgical fixation of a tibial shaft fracture with an intramedullary nail, healthcare providers should monitor for the development of fat embolism syndrome (FES) in the immediate postoperative period. FES is a serious complication that occurs when fat droplets from the bone marrow enter the bloodstream and cause respiratory and neurological symptoms. Clinical manifestations of FES may include dyspnea, tachypnea, petechial rash, altered mental status, and hypoxemia. Prompt recognition and treatment are essential in managing fat embolism syndrome to prevent serious complications such as respiratory failure and neurological deficits. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of FES is crucial in the postoperative care of patients undergoing surgical fixation of long bone fractures.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse doubts that the physician has prescribed an unusually large dosage of a medication. The nurse ask the senior nurse on duty about the order if it is correct or wrong, the senior nurse tells the nurse that the order is correct. The nurse comply with the order and administer it to the patient. The patient eventually died. Who is liable for this situation.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The physician is ultimately responsible for prescribing the correct dosage of medication to the patient. However, the nurse also plays a critical role in ensuring patient safety by questioning any orders that appear to be unusual or incorrect. In this scenario, the nurse had doubts about the unusually large dosage but was reassured by the senior nurse that the order was correct. Both the physician and the nurse failed in their responsibilities, leading to the patient's unfortunate death. The senior nurse also shares liability as they provided incorrect guidance to the nurse administering the medication. Ultimately, the situation was a result of a breakdown in communication and adherence to proper procedures by both the physician and the nurse.