ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A pregnant woman presents with severe abdominal pain and passage of tissue at 12 weeks gestation. On examination, the cervix is partially dilated, and products of conception are protruding through the cervical os. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the pregnant woman is presenting with severe abdominal pain, passage of tissue, and cervical dilation with products of conception protruding through the cervical os at 12 weeks gestation. These are classic signs and symptoms of an incomplete abortion. Incomplete abortion occurs when not all of the products of conception are expelled from the uterus. It can present with vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, cervical dilation, and passage of tissue. The management of incomplete abortion may involve expectant, medical, or surgical options depending on the clinical context and the patient's condition.
Question 2 of 5
A patient with chronic bronchitis presents with chronic cough, sputum production, and exertional dyspnea. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for managing the patient's symptoms and improving quality of life?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bronchodilator therapy. Bronchodilators help to relax and open up the airways, which can improve airflow and reduce symptoms such as cough, sputum production, and dyspnea in patients with chronic bronchitis. This intervention can help manage the patient's symptoms and improve their quality of life by making it easier for them to breathe. A: Smoking cessation counseling is important for overall management of chronic bronchitis, but it does not directly address the patient's current symptoms. B: Oral antibiotic therapy may be indicated if there is evidence of a bacterial infection, but it is not the first-line treatment for managing chronic bronchitis symptoms. C: Home oxygen therapy may be necessary for patients with severe hypoxemia, but it is not typically the first intervention for managing symptoms of chronic bronchitis without evidence of significant oxygen desaturation.
Question 3 of 5
During a surgical procedure, the nurse notices a sudden decrease in the patient's oxygen saturation on the monitor. What immediate action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct immediate action is to inform the surgeon and anesthesiologist (Choice A) because a sudden decrease in oxygen saturation during surgery is a critical situation that requires prompt attention from the entire surgical team. The surgeon and anesthesiologist need to be made aware of the situation so that they can assess the patient's condition and make any necessary adjustments to the surgical procedure or anesthesia delivery. Increasing the flow rate of oxygen (Choice B) may help temporarily but does not address the underlying cause of the oxygen desaturation. Checking the endotracheal tube placement (Choice C) is important but may not be the immediate priority in this critical situation. Assessing the patient's respiratory status (Choice D) is important but should be done after informing the surgeon and anesthesiologist to ensure coordinated and timely interventions.
Question 4 of 5
The 1icensure examination which is administered by the Professional Regulation Commission, Board of Nursing is given to ______.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the licensure examination aims to assess if candidates meet the expected competency standards to practice nursing safely and effectively. This process ensures that only qualified individuals enter the profession, maintaining high standards of care. Choice A is incorrect because the exam goes beyond applying theory to include practical skills. Choice B is incorrect as protecting the public is the outcome of ensuring competency. Choice C is incorrect as the exam evaluates the full scope of nursing practice, not just its application.
Question 5 of 5
A patient presents with sudden-onset, painless vision loss in the right eye. Fundoscopic examination reveals a cherry-red spot at the macula and attenuated retinal vessels. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Central retinal artery occlusion. This condition presents with sudden-onset, painless vision loss, cherry-red spot at the macula due to lack of blood flow, and attenuated retinal vessels. The cherry-red spot is due to the transparency of the fovea when there is ischemia in the surrounding retina. Central retinal vein occlusion (B) presents with sudden vision loss accompanied by retinal hemorrhages and dilated tortuous veins. Retinal detachment (C) typically presents with sudden flashes, floaters, and a curtain-like visual field defect. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (D) presents with severe eye pain, blurred vision, halos around lights, and a fixed mid-dilated pupil.
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