A pregnant woman complains of vaginal mucosa irritation, itching and genital tracts secretion. Bacterioscopy of vaginal smears revealed large gram-positive oval oblong cells that form pseudomicelium. What is the most probable channel of infection?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sexual transmission. The symptoms described are indicative of a vaginal yeast infection caused by Candida albicans. The presence of large gram-positive oval oblong cells forming pseudomycelium is characteristic of Candida infection. Sexual transmission is the most probable channel of infection as Candida can be transmitted through sexual contact. Endogenous infection (A) refers to infections originating from the body's own flora, which is not the case here. Contact infection (C) typically involves direct physical contact or fomite transmission, which is less likely in this scenario. Vector-borne transmission (D) involves transmission through vectors like mosquitoes or ticks, which is not relevant in this case.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. The Filoviridae family includes Marburg virus and Ebola virus. 2. Both viruses are characterized by filamentous, enveloped structure. 3. They cause severe hemorrhagic fever in humans. 4. Lassa virus and lymphocytic choriomeningitis viruses belong to Arenaviridae. 5. Chikungunya virus and Sindbis virus are alphaviruses. 6. Crimean-Congo virus and Hantaan virus are bunyaviruses. 7. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Jenner. Edward Jenner performed the first vaccination against smallpox in 1796 by using cowpox virus to immunize individuals. He observed that milkmaids who had contracted cowpox did not get smallpox, leading to the development of the smallpox vaccine. Pasteur is known for germ theory, Semmelweis for handwashing in healthcare, and Koch for identifying the causative agents of diseases. However, none of them performed the first smallpox vaccination like Jenner.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because in the lytic cycle, the bacteriophage destroys the host cell upon release, whereas in the lysogenic cycle, the phage integrates its DNA into the host genome without killing the host immediately. This integration may lead to the destruction of the host cell at a later stage. Choice B is incorrect as lytic phages do destroy the host cell. Choice C is incorrect as the two cycles have distinct mechanisms. Choice D is incorrect as there are clear differences between the lytic and lysogenic cycles.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacillus anthracis. The black, painless carbuncle with peripheral vesicular rash is characteristic of cutaneous anthrax. Microscopy showing non-motile Gram-positive rods with a capsule aligns with Bacillus anthracis. The other choices can be eliminated: B: Staphylococcus aureus does not typically form a black lesion or have a capsule. C: Clostridium perfringens causes gas gangrene, not the described lesion. D: Bacillus subtilis is not associated with the specific clinical presentation mentioned.