ATI RN
Maternal Disorders Questions
Question 1 of 5
A pregnant woman at 30 weeks gestation discovers she is HPV positive at her prenatal visit. Upon examination, her provider detects genital warts. Which treatment is not recommended in this case?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Podophyllin. It is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its potential teratogenic effects. Carbon dioxide laser surgery, electrocautery, and surgical excision can be considered safer options for treating genital warts during pregnancy. Podophyllin should be avoided to prevent harm to the developing fetus.
Question 2 of 5
An absence of what may facilitate the occurrence of bacterial vaginosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B - Lactobacillus acidophilus Rationale: Lactobacillus acidophilus is a beneficial bacteria that helps maintain the acidic pH of the vagina, inhibiting the growth of harmful bacteria like Gardnerella vaginalis. An absence of Lactobacillus acidophilus can disrupt the vaginal microbiota balance, allowing for the overgrowth of harmful bacteria and leading to bacterial vaginosis. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Antibodies - Antibodies play a role in the immune response but are not directly related to the occurrence of bacterial vaginosis. C: Gardnerella vaginalis - Gardnerella vaginalis is a bacteria associated with bacterial vaginosis, not its absence. D: Vaginal mucosa - The integrity of the vaginal mucosa is important for protection, but its absence would not directly facilitate bacterial vaginosis.
Question 3 of 5
Which best describes the signs and symptoms of trichomoniasis in women?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Trichomoniasis is characterized by malodorous, frothy yellow-green vaginal discharge due to the presence of Trichomonas vaginalis parasite. This discharge is a hallmark sign of the infection. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Foul, fishy odor and thick clumpy white discharge are more indicative of bacterial vaginosis or yeast infection. C: Dysuria and thin milky-white discharge are more suggestive of a urinary tract infection. D: Trichomoniasis can manifest with symptoms in women such as vaginal discharge, itching, and discomfort.
Question 4 of 5
A client with a history of herpes simplex virus (HSV-2) infection asks the nurse about future sexual activity. Which response is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D Rationale: 1. Informing all potential sexual partners about the HSV-2 infection, even if inactive, is crucial to ensure transparency and promote informed decision-making. 2. HSV-2 can be transmitted even when symptoms are not present, so partners need to be aware of the risk. 3. This approach demonstrates respect for the partners' autonomy and enables them to make choices regarding their own health. Summary: A: Incorrect. Using a condom is important even when the infection is inactive to prevent transmission. B: Incorrect. Refraining from all sexual activity may not be necessary if proper precautions are taken. C: Incorrect. Using a condom only when the infection is active does not fully address the risk of transmission during asymptomatic periods.
Question 5 of 5
A client has an HSV-2 infection. The nurse recognizes that which of the following should be included in teaching the patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because HSV-2 is a sexually transmitted infection that causes genital herpes. Treatment focuses on managing symptoms like antiviral medications, not curing the virus. Explanation of other choices: A is incorrect because HSV-2 causes genital sores, not cold sores on the lips. C is incorrect because antibiotics do not cure viral infections. D is incorrect because HSV-2 can be transmitted even when there are no visible lesions through asymptomatic shedding.