ATI RN
Maternity Heartbeat Monitor Questions
Question 1 of 5
A pregnant patient is at 30 weeks gestation and reports severe heartburn after eating. What is the nurse's most appropriate intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because encouraging the patient to eat smaller meals and avoid lying down after eating helps prevent stomach acid from refluxing into the esophagus, reducing heartburn. This intervention addresses the root cause of the symptoms during pregnancy. Option A is incorrect as antacids can provide temporary relief but do not prevent heartburn. Option C is incorrect as spicy foods and protein intake do not directly impact heartburn. Option D is incorrect as proton pump inhibitors are not typically recommended during pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus.
Question 2 of 5
During open glottis pushing, what is the laboring person instructed to do?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During open glottis pushing, the correct instruction is for the laboring person to push spontaneously while exhaling during contractions (Choice B). This technique helps prevent breath-holding, which can increase intra-abdominal pressure and reduce blood flow to the heart and baby. Exhaling while pushing allows for better oxygenation and reduces the risk of Valsalva maneuver-related complications. Holding their breath (Choice A) can increase the risk of fetal distress. Exhaling slowly without pushing (Choice C) is not effective in assisting with the pushing stage of labor. Deep breathing exercises between contractions (Choice D) are beneficial for relaxation but not the main focus during pushing.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is educating a birthing person about the benefits of skin-to-skin contact with their newborn immediately after birth. The nurse explains that this practice has numerous advantages. Which of the following benefits is NOT typically associated with skin-to-skin contact?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: accelerated uterine involution for the birthing person. Skin-to-skin contact does not directly impact the process of uterine involution. The benefits of skin-to-skin contact include improved bonding (A), enhanced thermoregulation (B), and decreased risk of neonatal infections (C). These benefits are well-documented and supported by research. In contrast, uterine involution is a physiological process that occurs naturally postpartum and is not influenced by skin-to-skin contact. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer in this scenario.
Question 4 of 5
During the third stage of labor, the nurse notes excessive bleeding. What should the nurse assess first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: During the third stage of labor, the correct answer is A: uterine tone. This is because assessing uterine tone is crucial in determining if the uterus is contracting effectively to control bleeding. If the uterus is not firm (boggy), it can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. Placental separation (B) occurs during the third stage, but assessing uterine tone takes precedence. Vaginal bleeding (C) is a symptom of potential postpartum hemorrhage, which can be caused by poor uterine tone. Cervical dilation (D) is not a priority in this situation as the focus should be on controlling bleeding.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is educating a birthing person about the signs and symptoms of postpartum hemorrhage. Which of the following is an early sign of postpartum hemorrhage?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: bright red bleeding. This is an early sign of postpartum hemorrhage because it indicates active bleeding from the uterus. Bright red blood suggests fresh bleeding, which is more concerning than darker blood. Increased blood pressure (B) is not typically associated with postpartum hemorrhage. Severe abdominal pain (C) is more indicative of other complications like uterine rupture. Increased heart rate (D) can be a sign of postpartum hemorrhage, but bright red bleeding is a more specific early indicator.