ATI RN
Antenatal care for complicated pregnancies Questions
Question 1 of 5
A pregnant client is admitted with abdominal pain and heavy vaginal bleeding. Which is the immediate nursing action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct immediate nursing action is to administer oxygen (Choice A) to ensure adequate oxygenation for both the mother and the fetus. Oxygen is crucial in cases of vaginal bleeding as it helps maintain tissue perfusion and prevent hypoxia. Elevating the head of the bed (Choice B) is not the priority as oxygenation should be addressed first. Drawing blood for a hematocrit level (Choice C) may provide valuable information but does not address the immediate need for oxygen. Giving an intramuscular analgesic (Choice D) is not appropriate without knowing the cause of the pain and bleeding.
Question 2 of 5
What medication is not recommended for hypertension during pregnancy due to teratogenic effects?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: lisinopril. Lisinopril is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects, particularly in the first trimester. It can cause fetal harm, including renal dysfunction and skull hypoplasia. Nifedipine, labetalol, and hydralazine are considered safe options for hypertension during pregnancy with no known teratogenic effects.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse receives a phone call from a patient at 36 weeks' gestation who states they are having right upper quadrant pain that penetrates to the upper back. What priority information does the nurse need to obtain from the patient? Select 3 that apply.
Correct Answer: A,B,C
Rationale: The correct answers are A, B, and C. A is important to determine the onset and characteristics of the pain to assess for possible causes like pre-eclampsia. B is crucial to assess for signs of liver or gallbladder issues. C is important to rule out any potential infection like chorioamnionitis. D is not relevant to the presenting symptoms and does not provide information related to the patient's condition.
Question 4 of 5
A patient at 10 weeks' gestation informs the nurse they are having vaginal bleeding and cramping. After completing a speculum examination, the health-care provider (HCP) informs the patient their cervix is open. What does the nurse anticipate the HCP will inform the patient they are experiencing?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: inevitable abortion. At 10 weeks' gestation, an open cervix with vaginal bleeding and cramping indicates an inevitable abortion, where the miscarriage is unavoidable and the process is ongoing. The open cervix suggests that the pregnancy is not viable and will not continue. The other options are incorrect because: A. Complete abortion refers to the expulsion of all products of conception, B. Incomplete abortion involves partial expulsion of products of conception, and D. Spontaneous abortion is a general term for any non-induced abortion.
Question 5 of 5
What is the difference between a complete abortion and an incomplete abortion?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because in a complete abortion, the uterus is empty, indicating that all products of conception have been expelled. In contrast, in an incomplete abortion, some products of conception remain in the uterus, leading to ongoing bleeding and cramping. Choice B is incorrect because cervical dilation is not the defining factor between complete and incomplete abortions. Choice C is incorrect as both complete and incomplete abortions can present with symptoms of miscarriage. Choice D is incorrect because the method of fetal removal does not differentiate between complete and incomplete abortions.