A postpartum client who delivered via cesarean section expresses concerns about breastfeeding positions and comfort. What nursing intervention should be prioritized to address the client's concerns?

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Question 1 of 9

A postpartum client who delivered via cesarean section expresses concerns about breastfeeding positions and comfort. What nursing intervention should be prioritized to address the client's concerns?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Demonstrating breastfeeding positions that minimize pressure on the incision site should be the nursing intervention prioritized to address the client's concerns. This is important because it ensures that the client can breastfeed comfortably while also protecting the healing incision. By showing the client appropriate positions, such as the football hold or side-lying position, the nurse can help minimize discomfort and promote successful breastfeeding without compromising the cesarean incision's healing process. It is crucial to support the client in establishing a good latch and positioning to encourage proper milk transfer and bonding while being mindful of the incision site.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following is the best predictor of adolescents attempting suicide?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Feeling of hopelessness. Adolescents who feel hopeless are at a higher risk of attempting suicide due to a lack of belief in positive outcomes. This feeling can lead to a sense of being trapped and unable to see a way out. Depressed mood (A) can contribute to suicide risk, but specifically feeling hopeless is a more direct predictor. Feeling of euphoria (B) and joyful mood (C) are actually less likely to be associated with suicide attempts, as they may temporarily mask underlying issues or provide a sense of distraction. Hopelessness is a key psychological factor that can lead to suicidal thoughts and behaviors in adolescents.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following data sets can be analyzed on the ratio level of measurement?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: pulse rates. Pulse rates can be analyzed on the ratio level of measurement because they have a true zero point and allow for meaningful ratios to be calculated. This means that we can perform operations such as addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division on pulse rate data. In contrast, the other options (A: eye color, C: ethnicity, D: gender) are categorical data that do not have a true zero point and therefore cannot be analyzed on the ratio level. Eye color, ethnicity, and gender are all examples of nominal data which only allow for qualitative classification and do not have a numerical value that can be used in mathematical operations.

Question 4 of 9

A patient with a history of congestive heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which electrolyte imbalance is the patient at risk for developing with furosemide therapy?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works in the ascending loop of Henle to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption. Step 2: Inhibition of sodium reabsorption leads to increased water and electrolyte excretion, including potassium. Step 3: Increased potassium excretion can lead to hypokalemia, which is a common side effect of loop diuretics like furosemide. Step 4: Hypokalemia can be dangerous, especially in patients with congestive heart failure, as it can worsen cardiac function and lead to arrhythmias. Step 5: Therefore, patients with a history of congestive heart failure prescribed furosemide are at risk for developing hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the following clinical manifestations is most indicative of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: - ARDS is characterized by severe hypoxemia and respiratory distress. - Tachypnea is a hallmark sign of ARDS due to the body's compensatory mechanism to increase oxygenation. - Hypoxemia refractory to supplemental oxygen signifies the inability to improve oxygen levels despite intervention. - Choices A, B, and D do not align with typical manifestations of ARDS, as they do not directly reflect severe hypoxemia or respiratory distress.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following actions is recommended for managing a patient with a suspected snakebite?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Transporting the patient to a medical facility for antivenom administration. This is recommended because antivenom is the definitive treatment for snakebites. Tourniquets (choice A) can worsen tissue damage and should be avoided. Elevating the limb (choice B) may not prevent venom spread. Making an incision (choice C) can lead to infection and increased venom absorption. Antivenom administration at a medical facility is crucial for proper management of snakebites.

Question 7 of 9

A patient presents with severe headache, photophobia, and neck stiffness. On examination, there is nuchal rigidity and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Meningitis. The patient's symptoms of severe headache, photophobia, neck stiffness, nuchal rigidity, and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs are classic signs of meningitis. Meningitis is an inflammation of the meninges surrounding the brain and spinal cord, leading to these specific neurological symptoms. Migraine headache (A) typically presents with a throbbing headache, nausea, and sensitivity to light and sound, but does not typically cause neck stiffness or positive meningeal signs. Cluster headache (B) is characterized by severe unilateral headache with autonomic symptoms like tearing or nasal congestion, but does not typically cause neck stiffness or positive meningeal signs. Subarachnoid hemorrhage (D) presents with sudden severe headache often described as "the worst headache of my life," and may cause neck stiffness, but typically does not present with photophobia or positive meningeal signs like Kernig and Brudzinski signs.

Question 8 of 9

When patient record reach the Medical Records, the assigned staff will _____.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because checking the completeness of the charting by doctors and nurses ensures that all necessary information is accurately documented, facilitating proper patient care and treatment. This step helps identify any missing or incorrect information that may impact patient safety. A: Storing the charts in respective shelves is a routine task that does not involve verifying the accuracy or completeness of the information. B: Separating medico-legal charts is important but does not directly address the completeness of charting by doctors and nurses. D: Binding the charts immediately is not necessary before ensuring the completeness and accuracy of the information documented.

Question 9 of 9

Which is the simple meaning of standards of nursing care?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: How the nurse will behave. Standards of nursing care refer to the expected behaviors and practices that nurses should adhere to in providing quality care to patients. This encompasses ethical principles, professional conduct, and best practices in nursing. It is essential for nurses to follow these standards to ensure patient safety and quality outcomes. Explanation: - A: What protects the nurse. This choice is incorrect because standards of nursing care primarily focus on patient care and outcomes, rather than protecting the nurse. - C: How much work is done. This choice is incorrect as it does not directly relate to the behaviors and practices expected of nurses in providing quality care. - D: Ask the local officials. This choice is unrelated to the concept of standards of nursing care and is not relevant to the question.

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