A postpartum client presents with persistent, severe headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric pain. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

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Adult Health Nursing First Chapter Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 9

A postpartum client presents with persistent, severe headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric pain. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The presentation of persistent, severe headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric pain in a postpartum client could indicate the development of postpartum preeclampsia or eclampsia, which are serious conditions that require immediate medical attention. Prompt notification of the healthcare provider is essential to ensure timely assessment, diagnosis, and treatment to prevent potential complications for both the mother and baby. Encouraging rest, providing acetaminophen, or offering a massage are not appropriate interventions for addressing these symptoms, as they do not address the underlying cause and urgency of the situation.

Question 2 of 9

A postpartum client presents with persistent, severe headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric pain. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The presentation of persistent, severe headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric pain in a postpartum client could indicate the development of postpartum preeclampsia or eclampsia, which are serious conditions that require immediate medical attention. Prompt notification of the healthcare provider is essential to ensure timely assessment, diagnosis, and treatment to prevent potential complications for both the mother and baby. Encouraging rest, providing acetaminophen, or offering a massage are not appropriate interventions for addressing these symptoms, as they do not address the underlying cause and urgency of the situation.

Question 3 of 9

A nurse administers the wrong medication to a patient and the patient is harmed. The physician who ordered the medication did not read the documentation that the patient was allergic to the drug. Which statement is true regarding liability for the administration of the wrong medication?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In a situation where a nurse administers the wrong medication to a patient resulting in harm, both the nurse and the physician can be held liable for their respective roles in the error. The nurse is responsible for administering the incorrect medication, which is a violation of their duty to provide safe and appropriate care. However, the physician is also responsible because they failed to review the patient's documentation indicating the allergy to the medication before ordering it. As healthcare professionals, both the nurse and the physician have a duty of care to ensure patient safety, and in this case, both individuals failed in their responsibilities, leading to the harm caused to the patient. Therefore, both the nurse and the physician can be held accountable for the error.

Question 4 of 9

A patient presents with sudden onset of weakness and numbness on one side of the body, along with difficulty speaking and understanding speech. Imaging reveals an acute infarction involving the left middle cerebral artery territory. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The patient is presenting with sudden onset weakness and numbness on one side of the body, along with difficulty speaking and understanding speech, which are typical symptoms of a stroke. Imaging revealing an acute infarction involving the left middle cerebral artery territory is consistent with an ischemic stroke. Ischemic stroke occurs when there is a blockage in a blood vessel supplying blood to the brain, leading to a lack of oxygen and nutrients to the affected area, resulting in neurological deficits. This is in contrast to an intracerebral hemorrhage, which is caused by bleeding into the brain tissue, or a subarachnoid hemorrhage, which involves bleeding into the space surrounding the brain. A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is a temporary episode of neurological dysfunction caused by a brief blockage of blood flow to a part of the brain, usually resolving within 24 hours. In this case, the presentation and imaging findings are most

Question 5 of 9

A patient presents with hoarseness, dysphonia, and occasional throat pain. Direct laryngoscopy reveals vocal cord nodules. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for managing this condition?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Vocal cord nodules are benign growths on the vocal cords, typically caused by vocal abuse or misuse. The most appropriate intervention for managing vocal cord nodules is voice therapy and vocal hygiene education. Voice therapy aims to correct vocal habits and techniques that contribute to the formation of nodules, while vocal hygiene education focuses on maintaining vocal health through proper hydration, rest, and avoiding behaviors that strain the vocal cords. These interventions have been shown to be effective in reducing and eliminating vocal cord nodules without the need for surgical intervention. Surgery, such as vocal cord polypectomy or injection with corticosteroids, is typically reserved for cases that do not respond to conservative management or if there are significant complications. Partial laryngectomy is a more extensive surgical procedure that is not typically indicated for vocal cord nodules.

Question 6 of 9

A patient presents with a small, painless, well-defined nodule on the lateral aspect of the neck, just above the clavicle. Fine-needle aspiration cytology reveals clusters of polygonal cells with abundant granular cytoplasm. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The presentation of a small, painless, well-defined nodule on the lateral aspect of the neck, above the clavicle, along with the cytology showing clusters of polygonal cells with abundant granular cytoplasm is most indicative of a parathyroid adenoma. Parathyroid adenomas are benign tumors derived from the parathyroid gland that can produce excess parathyroid hormone (PTH), leading to hyperparathyroidism. The characteristic histology of parathyroid adenomas includes chief cells with abundant granular cytoplasm.

Question 7 of 9

A patient presents with a yellowish-white spot on the cornea, surrounded by a ring of inflammation. Slit-lamp examination reveals branching, filamentous opacities extending from the corneal lesion. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The described presentation of a yellowish-white spot on the cornea with a ring of inflammation, along with branching, filamentous opacities extending from the corneal lesion, is characteristic of fungal keratitis. Fungal keratitis typically presents with these specific features on clinical examination.

Question 8 of 9

Which nursing diagnosis is NOT RELEVANT to sexual health?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the given situation, the nursing diagnosis that is NOT RELEVANT to sexual health is option B, Health-seeking behaviors related to reproductive functioning. This diagnosis focuses on the patient's proactive approach to seeking healthcare services related to reproductive health matters. However, in the situation presented of a pregnant patient with sickle cell anemia experiencing fever, painful swelling, and in labor pain, the immediate priority lies in addressing the health issues related to sickle cell disease and the current pregnancy. Sexual health is not the primary concern in this scenario compared to managing the complications of sickle cell anemia during pregnancy. Therefore, the diagnosis related to health-seeking behaviors related to reproductive functioning is not as pertinent in this specific case.

Question 9 of 9

A patient presents with fever, chills, headache, and myalgia after returning from a trip to sub-Saharan Africa. Laboratory tests reveal intraerythrocytic ring forms and trophozoites on blood smear examination. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most likely causative agent in this scenario is Plasmodium falciparum, a protozoan parasite that causes malaria. The patient's symptoms of fever, chills, headache, and myalgia align with the typical presentation of malaria. Additionally, the presence of intraerythrocytic ring forms and trophozoites on blood smear examination is characteristic of Plasmodium species, particularly P. falciparum, which causes the most severe form of malaria.

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