Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

A postpartum client expresses concerns about breastfeeding and worries about inadequate milk supply. What nursing intervention should be prioritized to address the client's concerns?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the infant's latch and feeding effectiveness should be prioritized as the initial nursing intervention to address the client's concerns about inadequate milk supply. Poor latch can lead to ineffective milk removal, which may result in decreased milk production. By ensuring the infant is latching correctly and effectively transferring milk, the client's milk supply can be optimized. Education about techniques to increase milk production can be provided following the assessment of feeding effectiveness. Referring to a lactation consultant may be necessary for further evaluation and support if issues persist despite correcting the latch. Supplemental formula feedings should be recommended as a last resort after all other interventions have been attempted and if there are concerns about inadequate nutrition for the infant.

Question 2 of 5

What is the primary purpose of splinting a fractured extremity in the pre-hospital setting?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The primary purpose of splinting a fractured extremity in the pre-hospital setting is to immobilize the injured area in order to prevent further injury. By stabilizing the fracture, splinting helps to reduce movement, which can alleviate pain, prevent additional damage to surrounding tissues, and minimize the risk of causing more harm during transport or while providing care. Splinting also helps to maintain proper alignment of the bones, which is crucial for the healing process and long-term function of the injured limb.

Question 3 of 5

Type I IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity reaction is promptly managed with ____.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Type I IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity reactions, such as anaphylaxis, are promptly managed with epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it helps counteract the severe symptoms by relaxing the muscles in the airways, constricting blood vessels, and decreasing swelling. It acts quickly to reverse the potentially life-threatening effects of the allergic reaction and is crucial in managing anaphylaxis effectively. Other medications like antihistamines (e.g., diphenhydramine) and corticosteroids may be used as adjuncts, but epinephrine remains the primary treatment for immediate hypersensitivity reactions.

Question 4 of 5

A patient presents with chest pain that occurs at rest and is exacerbated by deep breathing or changes in body position. The pain improves with leaning forward. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Pericarditis is the inflammation of the pericardium, the sac surrounding the heart. Patients with pericarditis typically present with sharp chest pain that worsens with deep breathing, changes in body position, and coughing. The pain tends to improve when the patient leans forward. This characteristic symptom of pericarditis is known as "pleuritic" chest pain. In contrast, stable angina presents as predictable chest pain that occurs with exertion and is relieved by rest or medications. Unstable angina is characterized by chest pain that occurs at rest or with minimal exertion and is considered a medical emergency. Myocarditis involves inflammation of the heart muscle and may present with symptoms such as chest pain, but it does not typically have the characteristic of worsening with deep breathing or changes in body position.

Question 5 of 5

A patient with renal failure presents with confusion, seizures, asterixis, and a sweet odor to the breath. Laboratory findings reveal severe metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, and elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with renal failure, confusion, seizures, asterixis, and a sweet odor to the breath, along with laboratory findings of severe metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, and elevated BUN and creatinine levels, is consistent with uremic encephalopathy. Uremic encephalopathy is a neurological complication of acute or chronic renal failure resulting from the buildup of uremic toxins in the blood, leading to various neurological symptoms such as confusion and seizures. The sweet odor to the breath can be attributed to the presence of urea, a waste product that accumulates in renal failure. Other metabolic abnormalities like hyperkalemia and severe metabolic acidosis are also common in renal failure. It is crucial to promptly recognize and manage uremic encephalopathy to prevent further neurological complications.

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