A post-TURP patient experiences dribbling following removal of his catheter. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Teach him to perform Kegel's exercises 10 to 20 times per hour. This is the appropriate action because Kegel's exercises help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which can improve urinary control and reduce dribbling post-TURP. Restricting fluid intake (A) is not necessary and may lead to dehydration. Reinserting the Foley catheter (C) is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection. Reassuring the patient (D) without providing any intervention is not addressing the issue. Teaching Kegel's exercises is the most effective and non-invasive approach to manage post-TURP dribbling.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Vitamin D. In hypoparathyroidism, there is a deficiency of parathyroid hormone leading to low calcium levels. Vitamin D helps in the absorption of calcium from the intestines, thus aiding in maintaining normal calcium levels. It is often prescribed along with calcium supplements to support bone health and prevent complications. Folic acid (A) is not directly related to the treatment of hypoparathyroidism. Potassium (B) is not typically prescribed for this condition and can be harmful in high levels. Iron (D) is not directly involved in calcium metabolism and is not part of the standard treatment regimen for hypoparathyroidism.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sitting at a 45-degree angle to the bed. This position allows the nurse to have a clear view of the client and maintain good communication. Sitting at a 45-degree angle enables the nurse to observe the client's facial expressions, body language, and interact effectively. Standing at the end of the bed (A) limits the nurse's view and communication. Standing at the side of the bed (B) may obstruct the nurse-client interaction. Sitting at least six feet away (C) creates unnecessary distance and hinders effective communication.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor for fatigue, muscle weakness, restlessness, and flushed skin. The patient is at risk for dehydration due to the combination of high temperature, age, and thiazide diuretic use. Thiazide diuretics can lead to electrolyte imbalances, including hypokalemia, which can cause symptoms such as muscle weakness and fatigue. Monitoring for signs of dehydration and electrolyte imbalances is crucial in this scenario to prevent complications. A: Making sure he drinks 8 glasses of water a day is not the priority as he is already at risk for dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. C: Hyperchloremia is not a common concern in this scenario based on the given lab values. D: Neurologic changes may occur in severe cases of electrolyte imbalances but monitoring for physical symptoms such as fatigue and muscle weakness is more relevant at this stage.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Symptoms of food poisoning typically include salivation, cramping, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, so statement A is correct. Step 2: Food left unrefrigerated can lead to bacterial growth, making it more dangerous, so statement B is accurate. Step 3: Cooking can kill harmful organisms and stop the production of toxins, supporting statement C. Step 4: All three statements are true and collectively provide a comprehensive understanding of food poisoning, making option D the correct answer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Altered level of consciousness. This is crucial as it can indicate various underlying health issues affecting Mr. Reyes. Assessing for this helps in detecting potential neurological, metabolic, or cardiac issues. A: Decreased carotid pulses - While important, it is not as critical as altered level of consciousness in this scenario. C: Bleeding from oral cavity - This is important to address but does not take priority over assessing Mr. Reyes' level of consciousness. D: Absence of deep tendon-reflexes - This is more specific to neurological assessments and may not be as urgent as assessing his level of consciousness.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion. In the late stage of AIDS, the client is at risk for neurological complications, including AIDS-related dementia due to decreased blood flow to the brain. This nursing diagnosis takes the highest priority as it directly addresses the client's impaired brain perfusion, which can lead to serious cognitive and functional deficits. Prioritizing this diagnosis ensures timely interventions to optimize cerebral blood flow and prevent further deterioration. Summary: A: Self-care deficient: Bathing/hygiene - important but not the highest priority compared to addressing neurological complications. B: Dysfunctional grieving - while emotional support is essential, it is not the priority when dealing with a life-threatening physiological issue. D: Risk for injury - while important, it is secondary to addressing the underlying cause of the dementia in this scenario.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Identify the correct answer - C: “I feel dizzy, I’ll skip my dose for a few days.” Step 2: Explanation - This statement indicates that the client is experiencing a known side effect of prazosin (dizziness) and plans to stop the medication temporarily without consulting the healthcare provider, showing noncompliance. Step 3: Supporting details - Skipping doses can lead to ineffective treatment and potential health risks. Step 4: Comparison with other choices: A: This statement shows the client questioning the need for medication but does not indicate current noncompliance. B: This statement demonstrates difficulty reading labels but does not directly relate to medication compliance. D: This statement shows awareness about medication interactions but does not indicate noncompliance with the prescribed medication regimen. Summary: Choice C is correct as it directly reflects noncompliance by planning to skip doses without consulting the healthcare provider, leading to potential adverse outcomes. Choices A, B, and D do not demonstrate the

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dopamine. Parkinson's disease is primarily caused by a deficiency of dopamine in the brain, leading to the characteristic symptoms of bradykinesia, rigidity, and tremors. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter involved in movement control. Acetylcholine (Choice A) is not directly related to Parkinson's disease, although its imbalance can contribute to other movement disorders. Serotonin (Choice B) and Phenylalanine (Choice D) are not primarily involved in the pathophysiology of Parkinson's disease.