ATI RN
health assessment practice questions nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
A physician has diagnosed a patient with purpura. After leaving the room, a nursing student asks the nurse what the physician saw that led to that diagnosis. The nurse should say:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because purpura is characterized by the presence of confluent and extensive patches of petechiae and ecchymoses. Petechiae are small, pinpoint hemorrhages less than 2mm in size, and ecchymoses are larger bruises. This presentation is indicative of a more severe underlying condition, such as a bleeding disorder or vasculitis. Choice A is incorrect as it describes spider veins or telangiectasias, not purpura. Choice B describes a birthmark, not purpura. Choice D is incorrect as it describes petechiae, not purpura, which involves larger areas of bleeding.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is assessing a patient with a history of intravenous drug abuse. While assessing his mouth, the nurse notices a dark red confluent macule on the hard palate. This could be an early sign of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). The dark red confluent macule on the hard palate is known as Kaposi's sarcoma, a common manifestation of AIDS. This lesion is caused by Human Herpesvirus 8 and is often seen in patients with compromised immune systems. Measles (B) typically presents with a rash, not a dark red macule. Leukemia (C) does not typically manifest as a dark red macule in the mouth. Carcinoma (D) refers to cancer and would present differently than Kaposi's sarcoma. In summary, the presence of a dark red confluent macule on the hard palate in a patient with a history of intravenous drug abuse is highly suggestive of AIDS, specifically Kaposi's sarcoma.
Question 3 of 9
While performing a mouth assessment on a patient, the nurse notices a 1-cm ulceration that is crusted and has an elevated border. It is located on the outer third of the lower lip. What other information would be most important for the nurse to obtain?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: When the patient first noticed the lesion. This information is crucial for determining the duration of the ulceration, aiding in diagnosing potential causes like trauma or infections. Nutritional status (Choice A) may not be directly related to the specific lesion. Whether the patient has had a recent cold (Choice C) is less relevant unless there are other symptoms present. Exposure to sick animals (Choice D) is not pertinent to the mouth ulceration. Therefore, obtaining information on when the patient first noticed the lesion is the most important for proper assessment and treatment planning.
Question 4 of 9
When using an otoscope to assess the nasal cavity, which of the following would the nurse need to do?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When using an otoscope to assess the nasal cavity, it is crucial to avoid touching the nasal septum with the speculum to prevent discomfort or injury to the patient. Touching the nasal septum can cause pain and potential damage. Incorrect Choices: A: Inserting the speculum at least 3 cm into the vestibule is not necessary and may cause discomfort or injury to the patient. C: Displacing the nose to the side being examined is not required and may not provide any additional benefit during the assessment. D: Keeping the speculum tip medial to avoid touching the floor of the nares is not as critical as avoiding contact with the nasal septum, which is more sensitive and can be easily injured.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is testing a patient's visual accommodation, which refers to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Visual accommodation refers to the ability of the eye to adjust focus when shifting gaze between objects at different distances. The correct answer is A, pupillary constriction when looking at a near object, as this is a key component of visual accommodation. When looking at a near object, the eye needs to adjust its focus by constricting the pupil to allow more depth of field and clearer vision. This process helps in bringing near objects into focus. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B: Pupillary dilation when looking at a far object is not related to visual accommodation, as the pupil dilates in low light conditions to allow more light to enter the eye. C: Changes in peripheral vision in response to light is not related to visual accommodation, as peripheral vision refers to the ability to see objects outside the direct line of sight. D: Involuntary blinking in the presence of bright light is a protective reflex to shield the eyes from excessive light and is not directly related to visual
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is assessing a patient's eyes for the accommodation response and would expect to see:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: convergence of the axes of the eyes. During the accommodation response, the eyes converge to focus on a near object. This is necessary to maintain clear vision when looking at close objects. Dilation of the pupils (A) is not part of the accommodation response. A consensual light reflex (B) refers to both pupils constricting simultaneously in response to light, not specific to accommodation. Conjugate movement of the eyes (C) refers to both eyes moving together in the same direction, which is not the primary action during accommodation.
Question 7 of 9
The projections in the nasal cavity that increase the surface area are called the:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: turbinates. Turbinates are bony projections in the nasal cavity that increase the surface area for the warming, humidifying, and filtering of inhaled air. Meatus (A) refers to the passages in the nasal cavity, not the projections. Septum (B) is the partition between the nostrils, not the projections. Kiesselbach's plexus (D) is a collection of blood vessels in the nasal septum, not the projections that increase surface area.
Question 8 of 9
When examining children with Down's syndrome (trisomy 21), the nurse looks for the possible presence of:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Down's syndrome is associated with characteristic physical features. Step 2: One common physical feature is a protruding tongue due to a small oral cavity. Step 3: This is known as macroglossia and is seen in individuals with Down's syndrome. Step 4: Therefore, the nurse looks for a protruding thin tongue in children with Down's syndrome. Summary: A is incorrect because ear dysplasia is not a common feature. B is incorrect as a long, thin neck is not a typical characteristic. D is incorrect because a narrow and raised nasal bridge is not a key feature of Down's syndrome.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following signs would the nurse expect to find on assessment of an individual with otitis externa?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Enlarged regional lymph nodes. In otitis externa, there may be regional lymphadenopathy due to inflammation and infection. Rhinorrhea (A) is associated with upper respiratory infections, not otitis externa. Periorbital edema (B) is seen in conditions like periorbital cellulitis. Pain over the maxillary sinuses (C) is indicative of sinusitis, not otitis externa.