ATI RN
health assessment practice questions nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
A physician has diagnosed a patient with purpura. After leaving the room, a nursing student asks the nurse what the physician saw that led to that diagnosis. The nurse should say:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because purpura is characterized by the presence of confluent and extensive patches of petechiae and ecchymoses. Petechiae are small, pinpoint hemorrhages less than 2mm in size, and ecchymoses are larger bruises. This presentation is indicative of a more severe underlying condition, such as a bleeding disorder or vasculitis. Choice A is incorrect as it describes spider veins or telangiectasias, not purpura. Choice B describes a birthmark, not purpura. Choice D is incorrect as it describes petechiae, not purpura, which involves larger areas of bleeding.
Question 2 of 9
The projections in the nasal cavity that increase the surface area are called the:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: turbinates. Turbinates are bony projections in the nasal cavity that increase the surface area for the warming, humidifying, and filtering of inhaled air. Meatus (A) refers to the passages in the nasal cavity, not the projections. Septum (B) is the partition between the nostrils, not the projections. Kiesselbach's plexus (D) is a collection of blood vessels in the nasal septum, not the projections that increase surface area.
Question 3 of 9
A physician has diagnosed a patient with purpura. After leaving the room, a nursing student asks the nurse what the physician saw that led to that diagnosis. The nurse should say:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because purpura is characterized by the presence of confluent and extensive patches of petechiae and ecchymoses. Petechiae are small, pinpoint hemorrhages less than 2mm in size, and ecchymoses are larger bruises. This presentation is indicative of a more severe underlying condition, such as a bleeding disorder or vasculitis. Choice A is incorrect as it describes spider veins or telangiectasias, not purpura. Choice B describes a birthmark, not purpura. Choice D is incorrect as it describes petechiae, not purpura, which involves larger areas of bleeding.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is performing middle ear assessment on a 15-year-old patient who has a history of chronic ear infections. When examining the right tympanic membrane, the nurse sees dense white patches. The tympanic membrane is otherwise unremarkable. It is pearly, with the light reflex at 5 o'clock and visible landmarks. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: know that these are scars caused from frequent ear infections. The presence of dense white patches on the tympanic membrane in a patient with a history of chronic ear infections indicates scarring from previous infections. This is a common finding in individuals who have experienced recurrent middle ear infections. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Fungal infections typically present with different characteristics such as discoloration or debris in the ear canal, not dense white patches on the tympanic membrane. C) Blood in the middle ear would manifest as redness or hemorrhage, not white patches. D) While scarring may affect hearing, the description of the tympanic membrane in this case does not suggest any immediate concern for hearing loss.
Question 5 of 9
The physician has diagnosed a tracheal shift in a patient. The nurse is aware that this means that the patient's trachea is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because tracheal shift due to thyroid enlargement occurs when the thyroid gland enlarges and displaces the trachea to the opposite side. This is a common clinical finding in conditions like a goiter. Other choices are incorrect because: A is incorrect as tracheal shift is not related to systole; B is incorrect as tracheal shift is typically caused by a mass pushing the trachea; C is incorrect as pleural adhesions don't typically cause tracheal shift.
Question 6 of 9
A patient is unable to read the 20/100 line on the Snellen chart. The nurse would:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Referring the patient to an ophthalmologist or optometrist is the appropriate action because the patient's inability to read the 20/100 line on the Snellen chart suggests significant visual impairment that requires professional evaluation. Options B and C are incorrect as they do not address the underlying cause of the vision issue. Option B focuses on a different method of assessment and does not provide a solution for the patient's visual acuity problem. Option C assumes the patient's vision issue can be corrected by reading glasses, which may not be the case for a 20/100 visual acuity. Option D is also incorrect as it only adjusts the testing distance and does not address the need for a comprehensive evaluation by an eye care specialist.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is assessing a patient's eyes for the accommodation response and would expect to see:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: convergence of the axes of the eyes. During the accommodation response, the eyes converge to focus on a near object. This is necessary to maintain clear vision when looking at close objects. Dilation of the pupils (A) is not part of the accommodation response. A consensual light reflex (B) refers to both pupils constricting simultaneously in response to light, not specific to accommodation. Conjugate movement of the eyes (C) refers to both eyes moving together in the same direction, which is not the primary action during accommodation.
Question 8 of 9
A 19-year-old community college student is brought to the emergency department with a severe headache he describes as"like nothing I've ever had before." His temperature is 40°C, and his neck is stiff. What do these signs and symptoms suggest?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The signs and symptoms - severe headache, high fever, and neck stiffness - in a young adult point towards meningeal inflammation. The combination of these symptoms is indicative of a potential infection or inflammation of the meninges, the protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. The presence of fever and neck stiffness, in addition to the severe headache, raises concern for meningitis, an infection of the meninges. This is a medical emergency that requires prompt evaluation and treatment. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Head injury usually presents with a history of trauma, which is not mentioned in the scenario. B: Cluster headaches typically do not present with fever and neck stiffness. C: Migraine headaches do not typically cause such high fever and neck stiffness.
Question 9 of 9
A mother brings her newborn in for an assessment and asks,"Is there something wrong with my baby? His head seems so big." Which of the following does the nurse know about the relative proportions of the head and trunk in the newborn?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: At birth, the head is one fifth the total length. This is because newborns have relatively larger heads compared to their body size. This is known as cephalocaudal growth, where development starts from the head and progresses down the body. The head being one-fifth of the total length is a normal proportion in newborns. Choice B is incorrect because at birth, the chest circumference is usually greater than the head circumference. Choice C is incorrect as the head size reaches about 80% of its final size by age 2, not 3 years old. Choice D is incorrect because the closure of the anterior fontanelle at 2 months does not necessarily mean the head will appear proportionate to the body; it continues to grow in proportion to the body size.