ATI RN
health assessment practice questions nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
A physician has diagnosed a patient with purpura. After leaving the room, a nursing student asks the nurse what the physician saw that led to that diagnosis. The nurse should say:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because purpura is characterized by the presence of confluent and extensive patches of petechiae and ecchymoses. Petechiae are small, pinpoint hemorrhages less than 2mm in size, and ecchymoses are larger bruises. This presentation is indicative of a more severe underlying condition, such as a bleeding disorder or vasculitis. Choice A is incorrect as it describes spider veins or telangiectasias, not purpura. Choice B describes a birthmark, not purpura. Choice D is incorrect as it describes petechiae, not purpura, which involves larger areas of bleeding.
Question 2 of 9
During history-taking, a patient tells the nurse that he has frequent nosebleeds and asks about the best way to prevent them. What would be the nurse's best response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When a patient experiences nosebleeds, the best way to stop it is by sitting straight with the head tilted slightly forward and pinching the nose firmly for about 10-15 minutes. This position helps reduce blood flow to the nose and promotes clotting. It is important not to tilt the head back as it can lead to blood going down the throat and potentially causing choking or vomiting. Cold compresses can also be applied to help constrict blood vessels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow the proper technique for managing nosebleeds and can potentially worsen the situation.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse has just completed a lymph assessment on a 60-year-old healthy female patient. The nurse knows that most lymph nodes in healthy adults are normally:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: not palpable. In healthy adults, most lymph nodes are not palpable as they are typically small and not easily detectable through touch. This indicates normal lymphatic function and absence of significant inflammation or infection. Choices A, C, and D describe characteristics of abnormal lymph nodes, such as being shotty, large/firm/fixed, or rubbery/discrete/mobile, respectively, which are indicative of pathological conditions like infection, malignancy, or inflammation. Therefore, the absence of palpable lymph nodes in a healthy individual is the expected norm.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following statements about the outer layer of the eye is true?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the trigeminal (CN V) and the trochlear (CN IV) nerves are indeed stimulated when the outer surface of the eye is stimulated. The trigeminal nerve is responsible for the sensation of touch in the face and controls the muscles involved in chewing. The trochlear nerve controls the superior oblique muscle of the eye, which helps with downward and inward eye movements. Therefore, when the outer layer of the eye is touched or stimulated, these nerves are activated to convey the sensation to the brain. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A: The outer layer of the eye is not particularly sensitive to touch compared to other areas like the cornea or conjunctiva. B: The outer layer of the eye is not darkly pigmented; the pigmented layer is actually the uvea inside the eye. D: The visual receptive layer of the eye, known as the retina, is located deeper within the eye, not
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following statements about otoscopic examination of a newborn would be true?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the normal eardrum of a newborn can appear thick and opaque due to the presence of vernix or desquamated epithelium. Immobility of the drum (Choice A) is not a normal finding in a newborn and could indicate a problem. An "injected" membrane (Choice B) would suggest inflammation or infection, not necessarily infection. The appearance of the membrane in a newborn is not identical to that of an adult (Choice D) as it may have a different color, thickness, or opacity due to developmental differences.
Question 6 of 9
During the assessment of a 20-year-old patient with a 3-day history of nausea and vomiting, the nurse notes the following: dry mucosa and deep fissures in the tongue. This finding is indicative of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The dry mucosa and deep fissures in the tongue indicate dehydration in the patient. Dehydration causes decreased saliva production, leading to dry mouth and tongue fissures. This is a common symptom of dehydration. The lack of moisture in the oral cavity can result in these physical signs. The other choices are incorrect because irritation by gastric juices typically presents with other symptoms, a normal oral condition would not show these specific findings, and side effects of nausea medication would not directly cause dry mucosa and deep fissures in the tongue. Therefore, the correct answer is A: dehydration.
Question 7 of 9
A patient is unable to read the 20/100 line on the Snellen chart. The nurse would:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Referring the patient to an ophthalmologist or optometrist is the appropriate action because the patient's inability to read the 20/100 line on the Snellen chart suggests significant visual impairment that requires professional evaluation. Options B and C are incorrect as they do not address the underlying cause of the vision issue. Option B focuses on a different method of assessment and does not provide a solution for the patient's visual acuity problem. Option C assumes the patient's vision issue can be corrected by reading glasses, which may not be the case for a 20/100 visual acuity. Option D is also incorrect as it only adjusts the testing distance and does not address the need for a comprehensive evaluation by an eye care specialist.
Question 8 of 9
A 40-year-old woman reports a change in mole size, accompanied by colour changes, itching, burning, and bleeding over the past month. She has a dark complexion and has no family history of skin cancer, but she has had many blistering sunburns in the past. The nurse would:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient's symptoms (change in mole size, color changes, itching, burning, bleeding) are concerning for melanoma, a type of skin cancer. Given her history of blistering sunburns, early evaluation and referral are crucial for timely intervention. Option A is incorrect as it delays necessary evaluation. Option C is irrelevant as the symptoms suggest a serious condition, not environmental irritants. Option D is incorrect as compound nevi typically do not present with the described symptoms and are not common in this age group.
Question 9 of 9
During an examination of a 3-year-old child, the nurse notes a bruit over the left temporal area. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a bruit in a 3-year-old child, especially over the temporal area, is not a normal finding and could indicate a serious underlying issue such as an arteriovenous malformation or other vascular abnormality. Stopping the examination and notifying the physician is crucial for further evaluation and management. A: Continuing the examination is not appropriate as the bruit should prompt further investigation. B: Checking again in 1 hour is unnecessary delay in addressing a potentially serious issue. C: Notifying the parents alone without medical intervention may delay necessary evaluation and treatment.